MCQ : NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS
201. You notice an area of redness on the buttock of an elderly patient and suspect they may be at risk of developing a pressure ulcer. Which of the following would be the most appropriate to apply?
a) Negative pressure
dressing
b) Rapid capillary
dressing
c) Alginate dressing
d) Skin barrier
product
202.
Which solution use minimum tissue damage while providing wound care?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Povidine iodine
c) Saline
d) Gention violet
203.
Which are not the benefits of using negative pressure wound therapy?
a) Can reduce wound
odour
b) Increases local
blood flow in peri-wound area
c) Can be used on
untreated osteomyelitis
d) Can reduce use of
dressings
204.
Which one of the following types of wound is NOT suitable for negative pressure
wound therapy?
a) Partial thickness
burns
b) Contaminated
wounds
c) Diabetic and
neuropathic ulcers
d) Traumatic wounds
205.
How do you remove a negative pressure dressing?
a) Remove pressure
then detach dressing gently
b) Get TVN nurse to
remove dressing
c) remove in a quick
fashion
206.
How would you care for a patient with a necrotic wound?
a) Systemic
antibiotic therapy and apply a dry dressing
b) Debride and apply
a hydrogel dressing.
c) Debride and apply
an antimicrobial dressing.
d) Apply a negative
pressure dressing.
207. The nurse cares for a patient with a wound in the late regeneration phase of tissue repair. The wound may be protected by applying a:
a) Transparent film
b) Hydrogel dressing
c) Collagenases
dressing
d) Wet dry dressing
208.
Black wounds are treated with debridement. Which type of debridement is most
selective and least damaging?
a) Debridement with
scissors
b) Debridement with
wet to dry dressings
c) Mechanical
debridement
d) Chemical
debridement
209.
If an elderly immobile patient had a "grade 3 pressure sore", what
would be your management?
a) Film dressing,
mobilization, positioning, nutritional support
b) Foam dressing,
pressure relieving mattress, nutritional support
c) Dry dressing,
pressure relieving mattress, mobilization
d) Hydrocolloid dressing,
pressure relieving mattress, nutritional support
210. A client has a diabetic stasis ulcer on the lower leg. The nurse uses a hydrocolloid dressing to cover it. The procedure for application includes:
a) Cleaning the skin
and wound with betadine
b) Removing all
traces of residues for the old dressing
c) Choosing a
dressing no more than quarter-inch larger than the wound size
d) Holding it in
place for a minute to allow it to adhere
211.
The client at greatest risk for postoperative wound infection is:
a) A 3 month old
infant postoperative from pyloric stenosis repair
b) A 78 year old
postoperative from inguinal hernia repair
c) A 18 year old drug
user postoperative from removal of a bullet in the leg
d) A 32 year old
diabetic postoperative from an appendectomy
212. Mr Connor’s neck wound needed some cleaning to prevent complications. Which of the following concept will you apply when doing a surgical wound cleaning?
a) surgical asepsis
b) aseptic non-touch
technique
c) medical asepsis
d) dip-tip technique
213. When doing your shift assessment, one of your patient has a waterflow score of 20. Which of the following mattress is appropriate for this score?
a) water bed
b) fluidized airbed
c) low air loss
d) alternating
pressure
214.
Waterlow score of 20 indicates what type of mattress to use? (Select x 2)
a)
Standard-specification foam mattresses
b) High-specification
foam mattresses
c) Dynamic support
surface
215.
For a client with Water Score >20 which mattress is the most suitable
a) Water Mattress
b) Air Mattress
c) Dynamic Mattress
d) Foam Mattress
216. A patient has been confined in bed for months now and has developed pressure ulcers in the buttocks area. When you checked the waterlow it is at level 20. Which type of bed is best suited for this patient?
a) water mattress
b) Egg crater
mattress
c) air mattresses
217. You have just finished dressing a leg ulcer. You observe patient is depressed and withdrawn. You ask the patient whether everything is okay. She says yes. What is your next action?
a) Say " I
observe you don't seem as usual. Are you sure you are okay?"
b) Say "Cheer up
, Shall I make a cup of tea for you?"
c) Accept her answer
& leave. attend to other patients
d) Inform the doctor
about the change of the behaviour.
218.
External factors which increase the risk of pressure damage are:
e) Equipment, age and
pressure
f) Moisture, pressure
and diabetes
g) Pressure, shear
and friction
h) Pressure, moisture
and age
219. Mr Smith has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis 20 years ago. Due to impaired mobility, he has developed a Grade 4 pressure sore on his sacrum. Which health professional can provide you prescriptions for his dressing?
a. Dietician
b. Tissue Viability
Nurse
c. Social Worker
d. Physiotherapist
220.
Sharp debridement may cause trauma to underlying structures, the procedure
should only be carried out by:
a) A health care
assistant on working full time
b) A qualified nurse
with at least 3 years experience
c) A doctor of any
type of speciality
d) A qualified
healthcare professional with appropriate training
221. Mrs Smith developed an MRSA bacteremia from her abdominal wound and her son is blaming the staff. It has been highlighted during your ward clinical governance meeting because it has been reported as a serious incident (SI). SI is best described as:
a) any incident or
occurrence that has the potential to cause harm and/or has caused harm to a
person or persons
b) a consequence of
an intervention, relating to a piece of equipment and/or as a consequence of
the working environment
c) Incident requiring
investigation that occurred in relation to NHS funded services and care
resulting in; unexpected or avoidable death,
permanent harm
d) All
222.
How much urine should someone void an hour?
a) 0.5 – 1ml/Kg/hr of
the patient’s body weight
b) 2mls/KG/hr of the
patient’s body weight
c) 30mls
d) 50mls
223.
Patient usually urinates at night Nurse identifies this as:
A) Polyuria
B) Oliguria
C) Nocturia
224. Wendy, 18 years old, was admitted on Medical Ward because of recurrent urinary tract infection (UTI). She disclosed to you that she had unprotected sex with her boyfriend on some occasions. You are worried this may be a possible cause of the infection. How will best handle the situation?
A) tell her that any
information related to her well being will need to be share to the health care
team
B) inform her parents
about this so she can be advised appropriately
C) keep the
information a secret in view of confidentiality
D) report her
boyfriend to social services
225.
What are the steps for the proper urine collection?
a) Clean meatus with
soap and water
b) Catch midstream
c) Dispatch sample to
laboratory immediately (within 6 hours)
d) Ask the patient to
void her remaining urine into the toilet or bedpan.
a) A, B, & C
b) B, C, & D
c) A, B, & D
d) A, C, & D
226.
On removing your patient’s catheter, what should you encourage your patient to
do ?
a) Rest & drink
2-3 litres of fluid per day
b) Rest & drink
in excess of 5 litres of fluid per day
c) Exercise &
drink 2-3 litres of fluid per day
d) Exercise &
drink their normal amount of fluid intake
227.
When should a penile sheath be considered as a means of managing incontinence?
a) When other methods
of continence management have failed
b) Following the
removal of a catheter
c) When the patient
has a small or retracted penis
d) When a patient
requests it
228.
What is the most important guiding principle when choosing the correct size of
catheter?
a) The biggest size
tolerable
b) The smallest size
necessary
c) The potential
length of use of the catheter
d) The build of the
patient
229.
When carrying out a catheterization, on which patients would you use
anaesthetic lubricating gel prior to
catheter
insertion?
a) Male patients to
aid passage, as the catheter is longer
b) Female patients as
there is an absence of lubricating glands in the female urethra, unlike the
male urethra
c) Male & female
patients require anaesthetic lubricating gel
d) The use of
anaesthetic lubricating gel is not advised due to potential adverse reactions
230.
What are the principles of positioning a urine drainage bag?
a) Above the level of
the bladder to improve visibility & access for the health professional
b) Above the level of
the bladder to avoid contact with the floor
c) Below the level of
the patient’s bladder to reduce backflow of urine
d) Where the patient
finds it most comfortable
231.
What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tack
infection?
a) The patient has
spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC), has new-onset
confusion & the urine in the catheter bag
is cloudy
b) The doctor has
requested a midstream urine specimen
c) The patient has a
urinary catheter in situ & the patient's wife states that he seems more
forgetful than usual
d) The patient has
complained of frequency of faecal elimination & hasn't been drinking enough
232.
A client with frequent urinary tract infections asks the nurse how she can
prevent the reoccurrence. The nurse should
teach
the client to:
b) Douche after
intercourse
a) Void every three
hours
b) Obtain a
urinalysis monthly
c) Wipe from back to
front after voiding
233. A patient is prescribed methformin 1 000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While taking with the patient he states “I never eat breakfast so I take ½ tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want my blood sugar to drop.” As his primary care nurse you:
a) Tell him he has
made a good decision and to continue
b) Tell him to take a
whole tablet with lunch and with supper
c) Tell him to skip
the morning dose and just take the dose at supper
d) Tell him to take
one tablet in the morning and one tablet in the evening as ordered.
234. The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient and when making rounds, notices that the patient is trembling and stating they are dizzy. The next action by the nurse would be:
a) Administer patient’s
scheduled Metformin
b) Give the patient a
glass of orange juice
c) Check the patient’s
blood glucose
d) Call the doctor
235.
Common signs and symptoms of a hypoglycaemia exclude:
a) Feeling hungry
b) Sweating
c) Anxiety or
irritability
d) Blurred vision
e) Ketoacidosis
236.
Hypoglycaemia in patients with diabetes is more likely to occur when the
patients take: (Select x 3 correct answers)
a) Insulin
b) Sulphonylureas
c) Prandial glucose
regulators
d) Metformin
237.
What are the contraindications for the use of the blood glucose meter for blood
glucose monitoring?
a) The patient has a
needle phobia and prefers to have a urinalysis.
b) If the patient is
in a critical care setting, staff will send venous samples to the laboratory
for verification of blood glucose level.
c) If the machine
hasn't been calibrated
d) If peripheral circulation is
impaired, collection of capillary blood is not advised as the results might not
be a true reflection of
the physiological
blood glucose level.
238.
What would you do if a patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy requires
assistance cutting his toe nails?
a) Document clearly
the reason for not cutting his toe nails and refer him to a chiropodist.
b) Document clearly
the reason for not cutting his nails and ask the ward sister to do it.
c) Have a go and if
you run into trouble, stop and refer to the chiropodist.
d) Speak to the
patient's GP to ask for referral to the chiropodist, but make a start while the
patient is in hospital.
239. For an average person from UK who has non-insulin dependent diabetes, how many servings of fruits and vegetables per day should they take?
a) 1 serving
b) 3 servings
c) 5 servings
d) 7 servings
240.
Common causes for hyperglycaemia include: (select 4)
a) Not eating enough
protein
b) Eating too much
carbohydrate
c) Over-treating a
hypoglycaemia
d) Stress
e) Infection (for
example, colds, bronchitis, flu, vomiting, diarrhoea, urinary infections, and
skin infections)
241. Most of the symptoms are common in both type1 and type 2 diabetes. Which of the following symptom is more common in typ1 than type2?
a) Thirst
b) Weight loss
c) Poly urea
d) Ketones
242.
Alone, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar). However, in
rare cases, you may
develop
hypoglycaemia if you combine metformin with:
a) a poor diet
b) strenuous exercise
c) excessive alcohol
intake
d) other diabetes
medications
e) all of the above
243. The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient and when making rounds, notices that the patient is trembling and stating they are dizzy. The next action by the nurse would be:
a) Administer patient’s
scheduled Metformin
b) Give the patient a
glass of orange juice
c) Check the patient’s
blood glucose
d) Call the doctor
244.
When developing a program offering for patients who are newly diagnosed with
diabetes, a nurse case manager
demonstrates
an understanding of learning styles by:
a) Administering a
pre- and post-test assessment.
b) Allowing patient’s
time to voice their opinions.
c) Providing a snack
with a low glycaemic index.
d) Utilizing a variety
of educational materials.
245. Mr Cross informed you of how upset he was when you commented on his diabetic foot during your regular home visit. He is considering to see another tissue viability nurse. How will you best respond to him?
A. Apologise for the
comments made
B. Tell him of his
overreaction
C. Explain that his
condition will make him over-sensitive to a lot of things
D. Apologise and tell
him to deal with the event lightly
246.
Which of the following indicates the patient needs more education when doing
capillary sampling to check for blood sugar?
a) Prick tip of index
finger
b) Prick sides of a
finger
c) Rotates sites of
fingers
247. The client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion. The priority intervention for this client is:
A.
Measure
the urinary output.
B.
Check
the vital signs.
C.
Encourage
increased fluid intake.
D.
Weigh
the client.
248. You are preparing to consider a Tuberculin (Mantoux) skin test to a client suspected of having TB. The nurse knows that the test will reveal which of the following?
A) How long the
client has been infected with TB
B) Active TB
infection
C) Latent TB
infection
D) Whether the client
has been infected with TB bacteria
249.
How do we handle a specimen container labelled with a yellow hazard sticker?
a) Wear gloves and
apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the laboratory with your
other specimens
b) Wear gloves and
apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the laboratory with your
other specimens
c) Wear gloves and
apron, inform the infection control team and complete a datix form
d) Wear gloves and
apron, place specimen in a blue bag & complete a datix form
250. When collecting
an MSU from a male patient, what should they do prior to the specimen being
collected?
a) Clean the meatus
and catch a specimen from the last of the urine voided
b) Clean the meatus
and catch a specimen from the first stream of urine (approx. 30mls)
c) Clean the meatus
and catch a specimen of the urine midstream
d) Ask the patient to
void into a bottle and pour urine specimen into the specimen container.
251.
How do you ensure the correct blood to culture ratio when obtaining a blood
culture specimen from an adult patient?
a) Collect at least
10 mL of blood
b) Collect at least 5
mL of blood.
c) Collect blood
until the specimen bottle stops filling.
d) Collect as much
blood as the vein will give you
252. If blood is being taken for other tests, and a patient requires collection of blood cultures, which should come first to reduce the risk of contamination?
a) Inoculate the
aerobic culture first
b) Take the other
blood tests first.
c) Inoculate the
anaerobic culture first.
d) The order does not
matter as long as the bottles are clean
253. Which of the following techniques is advisable when obtaining a urine specimen in order to minimize the contamination of a specimen?
a) Clean around the
urethral meatus prior to sample collection and get a midstream/cle an catch
urine specimen.
b) Clean around the
urethral meatus prior to sample collection and collect the first portion of
urine as this is where the most bacteria
will be.
c) Do not clean the
urethral meatus as we want these bacteria to analyse as well.
d) Dip the urinalysis
strip into the urine in a bedpan mixed with stool
254. When dealing with a patient who has a biohazard specimen, how will you ensure proper disposal? Select which does not apply:
a) the specimen must
be labelled with a biohazard
b) the specimen must
be labelled with danger of infection
c) it must be in a
double self-sealing bag
d) it must be
transported to the laboratory in a secure box with a fastenable lid
Read Also :
255.
What action would you take if a specimen had a biohazard sticker on it?
a) Double bag it, in
a self-sealing bag, and wear gloves if handling the specimen.
b) Wear gloves if
handling the specimen, ring ahead and tell the laboratory the sample is on its
way.
c) Wear goggles and
underfill the sample bottle.
d) Wear appropriate
PPE and overfill the bottle.
256.
How do we handle a specimen container labelled with a yellow hazard sticker?
a) Wear gloves and
apron and inform the laboratory that you are sending the specimen.
b) Wear gloves and
apron, mark it high risk and send the specimen to the laboratory with your
other specimens
c) Wear gloves and
apron, Inform the infection control team and complete a datix form.
d) Wear gloves and
apron, place specimen in a blue bag & complete a datix form.
257.
You are caring for a patient who is known to have dementia. What particular
issues should you consider prior to discharge.
a) You involve in his
care: Independent Mental Capacity Advocacy Service (Mental Capacity Act 2005)
b) You involve other
support services in his discharge: The hospital discharge team, social services,
the metal health team
258. Which of the following is a guiding principle for the nurse in distinguishing mental disorders from the expected changes associated with aging
a) A competent
clinician can readily distinguish mental disorders from the expected changes
associated with aging
b) Older people are
believed to be more prone to mental illness than young people
c) The clinical
presentation of mental illness in older adults differs form that in other age
groups
d) When physical
deterioration becomes a significant feature of an elder’s life, the risk of
comorbid psychiatric illness arises.
259.
A normal sign of aging in the renal system is
a) Intermittent
incontinence
b) Concentrated urine
c) Microscopic
hematuria
d) A decreased
glomerular filtration rate
260. A 76 year old man who is a resident in an extended care facility is in the late stages of Alzheimer’s disease. He tells his nurse that he has sore back muscles from all the construction work he has been doing all day. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
a) “ you know you don’t
work in construction anymore”
b) “What type of
motion did you do to precipitate this soreness?”
c) “You’re 76 years
old & you’ve been here all day. You don’t work in construction anymore.”
d) “Would you like me
to rub your back for you?”
261.
How should be the surrounding area of a patient with dementia?
A) Increased stimuli
B) Creative
environment
C) Restrict
activities
262. An 86 year old male with senile dementia has been physically abused & neglected for the past two years by his live in caregiver. He has since moved & is living with his son & daughter-in-law. Which response by the client’s son would cause the nurse great concern?
a) “How can we obtain
reliable help to assist us in taking care of Dad? We can’t do it alone.”
b) “Dad used to beat
us kids all the time. I wonder if he remembered that when it happened to him?”
c) “I’m not sure how
to deal with Dad’s constant repetition of words.”
d) “I plan to ask my
sister & brother to help my wife & me with Dad on the weekends.”
263. Knowing the difference between normal age- related changes & pathologic findings, which finding should the nurse identify as pathologic in a 74 year old patient?
a) Increase in
residual lung volume
b) Decrease in
sphincter control of the bladder
c) Increase in
diastolic BP
d) Decreased response
to touch, heat & pain.
264.
Which of the following is a behavioural risk factor when assessing the potential
risks of falling in an older person?
a) Poor
nutrition/fluid intake
b) Poor heating
c) Foot problems
d) Fear of falling
265.
What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
a) Loop diuretic
b) Hypnotics
c) Betablockers
d)
Nsaid
266.
Among the following drugs, which does not cause falls in an elderly?
A. Diuretics
B. NSAIDS
C. Beta blockers
D. Hypnotics
267. Mr Bond, 72 years old, complains of difficulty of chewing his food. He normally wears upper dentures daily. On assessment, you noticed some signs of gingivitis. Which of the following signs will you expect?
a) redness of soft
palate and tissues surrounding the teeth
b) haemo-serous
discharges around the gums
c) loosening of teeth
d) presence of
pockets deep in the gums
268. Mr Bond also shared with you that his gums also bleed during brushing. Which of the following statement will best explain this?
a) lack of vitamin C
in his diet
b) he is brushing too
hard
c) he is not using
proper toothbrush to remove the plaque
d)
he
is flossing wrongly
269.
What are the principles of communicating with a patient with delirium?
a) Use short
statements and closed questions in a well lit, quiet, familiar environment.
b) Use short
statements and open questions in a well lit, quiet, familiar environment
c) Write down all
questions for the patient to refer back to.
d) Communicate only
through the family using short statements and closed questions.
270.
Why is pyrexia not evident in the elderly?
a) Due to lesser body
fat
b) Due to immature T
cells
c) Due to aged
hypothalamus
d) Due to biologic
changes
271.
Which of the following is a sign of dehydration in the elderly?
a) diminished skin
turgor
b) hypertension
c) anxiety attacks
d) pyrexia
272. In a community hospital, an elderly man approaches you and tells you that his neighbour has been stealing his money, saying "sometimes I give him money to buy groceries but he didn't buy groceries and he kept the money" what is your
best
course of action for this?
a) Raise a
safeguarding alert
b) Just listen but
don't do anything
c) Ignore the old
man, he is just having delusions
d) Refer the old man
to the community clergy who is giving him spiritual support
273.
Which is not an appropriate way to care for patients with Dementia/Alzheimer’s?
a) Ensure people with
dementia are excluded from services because of their diagnosis, age, or any
learning disability.
b) Encourage the use
of advocacy services and voluntary support
c) Allow people with
dementia to convey information in confidence.
d) Identify and
wherever possible accommodate preferences (such as diet, sexuality and
religion).
274.
Barbara, an elderly patient with dementia, wishes to go out of the hospital.
What will be you appropriate action?
a) Call the police,
make sure she does not leave
b) Encourage the
patient to stay for his well being
c) Inform the police
to arrest the patient
d) Allow her to
leave, she is stable and not at risk of anything
275.
Conditions producing orthostatic hypotension in the elderly:
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Arrhythmias
C) Diabetes
D) Pernicious anaemia
E) Advanced heart
failure
F) All of the above
276. An 83-year old lady just lost her husband. Her brother visited the lady in her house. He observed that the lady is acting okay but it is obvious that she is depressed. 3weeks after the husband's death, the lady called her brother crying and was saying that her husband just died. She even said, "I cant even remember him saying he was sick." When the brother visited the lady, she was observed to be well physically but was irritable and claims to have frequent urination at night and she verbalizes that she can see lots of rats in their kitchen. Based on the manifestations, as a nurse, what will you consider as a diagnosis to this patient?
A) urinary tract
infection leading to delirium
B) delayed grieving
with dementia
277. Angel, 52 years old lose her husband due to some disease. 4 weeks later, she calls her mother and says that, yesterday my husband died…I didn’t know that he was sick…I cant sleep and I see rats and mites in the kitchen. What is angel’s condition?
a) She cant adjust
without her husband
b) Late grievance
with signs of dementia
c) Alzheimers with
delirium
278.
Why are elderly prone to postural hypotension? Select which does not apply:
a) The baroreflex
mechanisms which control heart rate and vascular resistance decline with age.
B. Because of medications
and conditions that cause hypovolaemia.
C. Because of less
exercise or activities.
D. Because of a
number of underlying problems with BP control.
279.
Why should healthcare professionals take extra care when washing and drying an
elderly patients skin?
a) As the older
generation deserve more respect and tender loving care (TLC).
b) As the skin of an
elder person has reduced blood supply, is thinner, less elastic and has less
natural oil. This means the skin is less
resistant to shearing
forces and wound healing can be delayed.
c) All elderly people
lose dexterity and struggle to wash effectively so they need support with
personal hygiene.
d) As elderly people
cannot reach all areas of their body, it is essential to ensure all body areas
are washed well so that the
colonization of
Gram-positive and negative micro-organisms on the skin is avoided.
280.
Why is pyrexia not always evident in the elderly?
a) Due to immature T
cells
b) Due to mature T
cells
c) Due to immature D
cells
d) Due to mature D cells
281.
Why constipation occurs in old age?
a) Anorexia and
weight loss
b) Decreased muscle
tone and periatalsis
c) Increased mobility
d) Increased
absorption in colon
282. You are looking after an emaciated 80-year old man who has been admitted to your ward with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COPD). He is currently so short of breath that it is difficult for him to mobilize. What are some of the actions you take to prevent him developing a pressure ulcer?
a) He will be at high
risk of developing a pressure ulcer so place him on a pressure relieving
mattress
b) Assess his risk of
developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool. If indicated, procure
an appropriate pressure –relieving
mattress for his bed
& cushion for his chair. Reassess the patient’s pressure areas at least
twice a day & keep them clean & dry.
Review his fluid
& nutritional intake & support him to make changes as indicated.
c) Assess his risk of
developing a pressure ulcer with a risk assessment tool & reassess every
week. Reduce his fluid intake to
avoid him becoming
incontinent & the pressure areas becoming damp with urine
d) He is at high risk
of developing a pressure ulcer because of his recent acute illness, poor nutritional
intake & reduced mobility.
By giving him his
prescribed antibiotic therapy, referring him to the dietician &
physiotherapist, the risk will be reduced.
283. You are looking after a 76-year old woman who has had a number of recent falls at home. What would you do to try & ensure her safety whilst she is in hospital?
a) Refer her to the
physiotherapist & provide her with lots of reassurance as she has lost a
lot of confidence recently
b) Make sure that the
bed area is free of clutter. Place the patient in a bed near the nurse’s
station so that you can keep an eye on her.
Put her on an hourly
toileting chart. obtain lying & standing blood pressures as postural
hypotension may be contributing to her falls
c) Make sure that the
bed area is free of clutter & that the patient can reach everything she
needs, including the call bell. Check
regularly to see if
the patient needs assistance mobilizing to the toilet. ensure that she has
properly fitting slippers & appropriate
walking aids
d) Refer her to the
community falls team who will asses her when she gets home
284. You are looking after a 75 year old woman who had an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. What would you do reduce the risk of her developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
a) Give regular
analgesia to ensure she has adequate pain relief so she can mobilize as soon as
possible. Advise her not to cross
her legs
b) Make sure that she
is fitted with properly fitting antiembolic stockings & that are removed
daily
c) Ensure that she is
wearing antiembolic stockings & that she is prescribed prophylactic
anticoagulation & is doing hourly
limb exercises
d) Give adequate
analgesia so she can mobilize to the chair with assistance, give subcutaneous
low molecular weight heparin
as prescribed. Make
sure that she is wearing antiembolic stockings
285. Fiona a 70 year old has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. You have EC devised a care plan to meet her nutritional needs. However, you have noted that she ahs poor fitting dentures. Which of the following is the least likely risk to the service user?
a) Malnutrition
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Dehydration
286.
What is the most common cause of hypotention in elderly?
a) Decreased response
in adrenaline & noradrenaline
b) Atheroma changes
in vessel walls
c) hyperglycaemia
d) Age
287.
What is an intermediate care home?
a) It is the
day-to-day health care given by a health care provider.
b) It includes a
range of short-term treatment or rehabilitative services designed to promote
independence.
c) It is a system of
integrated care.
d) It is a means of
organising work, that is patient allocation.
288.
What is not included in the care package in a nursing home?
a) Laundry
b) Food
c) Nursing Care
d) Social Activities
289.
The nurse cares for an elderly patient with moderate hearing loss. The nurse
should teach the patient’s family to use
which
of the following approaches when speaking to the patient?
a) Raise your voice
until the patient is able to hear you.
b) Face the patient
and speak quickly using a high voice.
c) Face the patient
and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice.
d) Use facial
expressions and speak as you would formally
290. Your nurse manager approaches you in a tertiary level old age home where complex cases are admitted, and she tells you that today everyone should adopt task - oriented nursing to finish the tasks by 10 am what’s your best action
a) Discuss with the
manager that task oriented nursing may ruin the holistic care that we provide
here in this tertiary level.
b) Ask the manager to
re-consider the time bound, make sure that all staffs are informed about task
oriented nursing care
291.
A patient with dementia is mourning and pulling the dress during night what do
you understand from this?
a) Patient is
incontinent
b) Patient is having
pain
c) Patient has
medication toxicity.
292. An elderly client with dementia is cared by hes daughter. The daughter locks him in a room to keep him safe when she goes out to work and not considering any other options. As a nurse what is your action?
a) Explain this is a
restrain. Urgently call for a safe guarding and arrange a multi-disciplinary
team conference
b) Do nothing as this
is the best way of keeping him safe
c) Call police,
social services to remove client immediately and refer to safeguarding
d) Explain this is a
restrain and discuss other possible options
293. In a community setting, an elderly patient reported to you that he gives shopping money to his neighbours but failed to bring groceries on frequent occasions. What is your best response on this situation?
a) Confront the
neighbour
b) Ignore, maybe he
is very old and does not think clearly
c) Fill up a raising
a concern/ safeguarding form, and escalate
d) ask patient to
report neighbour to police
294.
Which of the following displays the proper use of Zimmer frame?
a) using a 1 point
gait
b) using a 2 point
gait
c) using a 3 point
gait
d) using a 4 point
gait
295. The client advanced his left crutch first followed by the right foot, then the right crutch followed by the left foot. What type of gait is the client using?
A) Swing to gait
B) Three point gait
C) Four point gait
D) Swing through gait
296.
Nurse is teaching patient about crutch walking which is incorrect?
a) Take long strides
b) Take small strides
c) Instruct to put
weight on hands
297. After instructing the client on crutch walking technique, the nurse should evaluate the client's understanding by using which of the following methods?
a) Have client
explain produce to the family
b)
Achievement
of 90 on written test
c)
Explanation
d)
Return
demonstration
298. A nurse is caring for a patient with canes. After providing instruction on proper cane use, the patient is asked to repeat the instructions given. Which of the following patient statement needs further instruction?
a) ‘The hand opposite
to the affected extremity holds the cane to widen the base of support & to
reduce stress on the affected limb.’
b) as the cane is
advanced, the affected leg is also moved forward at the same time’
c) ‘when the
unaffected extremity begins the swing phase, the client should bear down on the
cane’
d) To go up the
stairs, place the cane & affected extremity down on the step. Then step
down the unaffected extremity’
299. Nurses assume responsibility on patient with cane. Which of the following is the nurse’s topmost priority in caring for a patient with cane?
a) Mobility
b) Safety
c) Nutrition
d) Rest periods
300.
To promote stability for a patient using walkers, the nurse should instruct the
patient to place his hands at:
a) The sides of the
walker
b) The hips
c) The hand grips
d) The tips
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