NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS
401.
What should be included in your initial assessment of your patients respiratory
status?
a) Review the
patients notes and charts, to obtain the patients history.
b) Review the results
of routine investigations.
c) Observe the
patients breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
d) Perform a
systematic examination and ask the relatives for the patient’s history.
402.
What should be included in your initial assessment of your patient's respiratory
status?
A. Review the
patient's notes and charts, to obtain the patient's history.
B. Review the results
of routine investigations.
C. Observe the
patient's breathing for ease and comfort, rate and pattern.
D.check for any
drains
E all of the above
403.
Position to make breathing effective?
a) left lateral
b) Supine
c) Right Lateral
d) High sidelying
404.
A client breathes shallowly and looks upward when listening to the nurse. Which
sensory mode should the nurse plan
to
use with this client?
a)
Touch
b)
Auditory
c)
Kinesthetic
d)
Visual
405.
While assisting a client from bed to chair, the nurse observes that the client
looks pale and is beginning to perspire heavily.
The
nurse would then do which of the following activities as a reassessment?
a) Help client into
the chair but more quickly
b) Document client’s
vital signs taken just prior to moving the client
c) Help client back
to bed immediately
d) Observe clients
skin color and take another set of vital signs
406.
A patient under u developed shortness of breath while climbing stairs. U inform
this to the doctor. This response
is
interpreted ass:
a) Breaching of
patients confidentiality
b) Essential, as it
is the matter of patient’s health
407.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of Type 1 (hypoxaemic) respiratory
failure?
A) Asthma
B) Pulmonary oedema
C) Drug overdose
D) Granulomatous lung
disease
408.
Respiratory protective equipment include:
A. gloves
B. mask
C. apron
D. paper towels
409.
What should be included in a prescription for oxygen therapy?
A) You don't need a
prescription for oxygen unless in an emergency.
B) The date it should
commence, the doctor's signature and bleep number.
C) The type of oxygen
delivery system, inspired oxygen percentage and duration of the therapy.
D) You only need a
prescription if the patient is going to have home oxygen
410.
Patient is in for oxygen therapy
A) A prescription is
required including route, method and how long
B) No prescription is
required unless he will use it at home.
C) Prescription not
required for oxygen therapy
411.
Why is it essential to humidify oxygen used during respiratory therapy?
A) Oxygen is a very
hot gas so if humidification isnt used, the oxygen will burn the respiratory
tract and cause considerable pain for
the patient when they
breathe.
B) Oxygen is a dry
gas which can cause evaporation of water from the respiratory tract and lead to
thickened mucus in the
airways, reduction of
the movement of cilia and increased susceptibility to respiratory infection.
C) Humidification
cleans the oxygen as it is administered to ensure it is free from any aerobic
pathogens before it is inhaled by
the patient.
412.
When using nasal cannulae, the maximum oxygen flow rate that should be used is
6 litres/min. Why?
A) Nasal cannulae are
only capable of delivering an inspired oxygen concentration between 24% and
40%.
B) For any given flow
rate, the inspired oxygen concentration will vary between breaths, as it
depends upon the rate and depth of the
patients breath and
the inspiratory flow rate.
C) Higher rates can
cause nasal mucosal drying and may lead to epistaxis.
D) If oxygen is
administered at greater than 40% it should be humidified. You cannot humidify
oxygen via nasal cannulae
413.
If a patient is prescribed nebulizers, what is the minimum flow rate in litres
per minute required?
a) 2 - 4
b) 4 - 6
c) 6 – 8
d) 8 – 10
414.
Which of the following oxygen masks is able to deliver between 60-90% of oxygen
when delivered at a flow rate of 10 –
15L/min?
a) Simple semi rigid
plastic masks
b) Nasal cannulas
c) Venture high flow
mask
d) Non-rebreathing
masks
415.
Prior to sending a patient home on oxygen, healthcare providers must ensure the
patient and family understand
the
dangers of smoking in an oxygen-rich environment. Why is this necessary?
a) It is especially
dangerous to the patient's health to smoke while using oxygen
b) Oxygen is highly
flammable and there is a risk of fire
c) Oxygen and
cigarette smoke can combine to produce a poisonous mixture
d) Oxygen can lead to
an increased consumption of cigarette
416.
What do you need to consider when helping a patient with shortness of breath
sit out in a chair?
a) They should not
sit out on a chair; lying flat is the only position for someone with shortness
of breath so that there are no negative
effects of gravity
putting pressure in lungs
b) Sitting in a
reclining position with legs elevated to reduce the use of postural muscle
oxygen requirements, increasing lung
volumes and
optimizing perfusion for the best V/Q ratio. The patient should also be kept in
an environment that is quiet so they
don’t expend any
unnecessary energy
c) The patient needs
to be able to sit in a forward leaning position supported by pillows. They may
also need access to a nebulizer
and humidified oxygen
so they must be in a position where this is a ccessible without being a risk to
others.
d) There are two
possible positions, either sitting upright or side lying. Which is used and is
determined by the age of the patient. It
is also important to
remember that they will always need a nebulizer and oxygen and the air
temperature must be below20
degree Celsius
417.
What do you expect patients with COPD to manifest?
A) Inc Pco2, dec O2
B) Dec Pco2, inc o2
C) Inc pco2, inc o2
D) Dec pco2, dec o2
418.
Which of the following indicates signs of severe Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary
disease (COPD)?
A) high p02 and high
pC02
B) Low p02 and low
pC02
C) low p02 and high
pC02
D) high p02 and low
pC02
419.
A COPD patient is in home care. When you visit the patient, he is dyspnoeic,
anxious and frightened. He is already on 2
lit
oxygen with nasal cannula.What will be your action
A. Call the emergency
service.
B. GiveOramorph 5mg
medications as prescribed.
C. Ask the patient to
calm down.
D. Increase the flow
of oxygen to 5 L
420.
A COPD patient is about to be discharged from the hospital. What is the best
health teaching to provide this patient?
A. Increase fluid
intake
B. Do not use home
oxygen
C. Quit smoking
D. nebulize as needed
421.
As a nurse, what health teachings will you give to a COPD patient?
A) Encourage to stop
smoking
B) Administer oxygen
inhalation as prescribed
C) Enroll in a
pulmonary rehabilitation programme
D) All the above
You
are caring for a patient with a history of COAD who is requiring 70% humidified
oxygen via a facemask. You are monitoring
his
response to therapy by observing his colour, degree of respiratory distress and
respiratory rate. The patient's oxygen
saturations
have been between 95% and 98%. In addition, the doctor has been taking arterial
blood gases. What is the reason for
this?
A. Oximeters may be
unreliable under certain circumstances, e.g. if tissue
perfusion is poor, if
the environment is cold and if the patient's nails are covered
with nail polish.
B. Arterial blood
gases should be sampled if the patient is receiving >60%
oxygen. C. Pulse
oximeters provide excellent evidence of oxygenation, but they
do not measure the
adequacy of ventilation.
D. Arterial blood
gases measure both oxygen and carbon dioxide levels
and therefore give an
indication ofboth ventilation and oxygenation
422.
Joy, a COPD patient is to be discharged in the community. As her nurse, which
of the following interventions will
you
encourage him to do to prevent progression of disease.
A) Oxygen therapy
B) Breathing exercise
C) Cessation of
smoking
D) coughing exercise
423.
You are caring for a 17 year old woman who has been admitted with acute
exacerbation of asthma. Her peak flow readings
are
deteriorating and she is becoming wheezy. What would you do?
A. Sit her upright,
listen to her chest and refer to the chest physiotherapist.
B. Suggest that the
patient takes her Ventolin inhaler and continue to monitor the patient.
C. Undertake a full
set of observations to include oxygen saturations and respiratory rate.
Administer humidified
oxygen,
bronchodilators, corticosteroids and antimicrobial therapy as prescribed.
D. Reassure the
patient: you know from reading her notes that stress and anxiety often trigger
her asthma.
424.
Lisa, a working mother of 3, has approached you during a recent attendance of
her daughter in Accident and
Emergency
because of an acute asthma attack about smoking cessation. What is your most
appropriate response to her?
A. Smoking cessation
will help prevent further asthma attack
B. Referral can be
made to the local NHS Stop smoking service
C. Discuss with her
the NICE recommendations on smoking cessation
D. It is not common
for people like her to stop smoking
425.
Reason for dyspnoea in patients who diagnosed with Glomerulonephritis patients?
a) Albumin loss
increase oncotic pressure causes water retention in cells
b) Albumin loss
causes decrease in oncotic pressure causes water retention causing fluid
retention I alveoli
c) Albumin loss has
no effect on oncotic pressure
426.
Your patient has bronchitis and has difficulty in clearing his chest. What
position would help to maximize the drainage
of
secretions?
a) Lying on his side
with the area to be drained uppermost after the patient has had humidified air
b) Lying flat on his
back while using a nebulizer
c) Sitting up leaning
on pillows and inhaling humidified oxygen
d) Standing up in
fresh air taking deep breaths
427.
A client diagnosed of cancer visits the OPD and after consulting the doctor
breaks down in the corridor and begins to
cry.
What would the nurses best action?
a) Ignore the client
and let her cry in the hallway
b) Inform the client
about the preparing to come forth next appointment for further discussion on the
treatment planned
c) Take her to a room
and try to understand her worries and do the needful and assist her with
further information if required
d) Explain her about
the list of cancer treatments to survive
428.
When an oropharyngeal airway is inserted properly, what is the sign
a) Airway obstruction
b) Retching and
vomiting
c) Bradycardia
d) Tachycardia
429.
Which of the following is a potential complication of putting an oropharyngeal
airway adjunct:
A) Retching, vomiting
B) Bradycardia
C) Obstruction
D) Nasal injury
430.
What are the principles of gaining informed consent prior to a planned surgery?
A) Gaining permission
for an imminent procedure by providing information in medical terms, ensuring a
patient knows the potential risks
and intended
benefits.
B) Gaining permission
from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information, both
verbally and with written material,
relating to the
planned procedure, for them to read on the day of planned surgery.
C) Gaining permission
from a patient who is competent to give it, by informing them about the
procedure and highlighting risks if the
procedure is not
carried out.
D) Gaining permission
from a patient who is competent to give it, by providing information in
understandable terms prior to surgery,
allowing time for
answering questions, and inviting voluntary participation.
431.
When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it valid?
a) Only if a patient
has the mental capacity to give consent
b) Only before a
clinical procedure
c) None of the above
432.
A patient is assessed as lacking capacity to give consent if they are unable
to:
A) Understand
information about the decision and remember that information
B) Use that
information to make a decision
C) Communicate their
decision by talking, using sign language or by any other means
D) All the above
433.
The following must be considered in procuring a consent, except:
a) respect and
support people’s rights to accept or decline treatment or care
b) withhold people’s
rights to be fully involved in decisions about their care
c) be aware of the
legislation regarding mental capacity
d) gain consent
before treatment or care starts
434.
What do you have to consider if you are obtaining a consent from the patient?
a) Understanding
b) Capacity
c) Intellect
d) Patient’s
condition
435.
An adult has been medicated for her surgery. The operating room (OR) nurse,
when going through the client's chart,
realizes
that the consent form has not been signed. Which of the following is the best
action for the nurse to take?
a)
Assume
it is emergency surgery & the consent is implied
b)
Get
the consent form & have the client sign it
c)
Tell
the physician that the consent form is not signed
d)
Have
a family member sign the consent form
436.
A patient doesn’t sign the consent for mastectomy. But bystanders strongly feel
that she needs surgery.
A) Allow family
members to take decision on behalf of patient
B) Doc can proceed
with surgery, since it is in line with the best interest and outcome
C) Respect patients
decision. She has the right to accept or deny
437.
A client is brought to the emergency room by the emergency medical services
after being hit by car. The name of the client
is
not known. The client has sustained a severe head injury, multiple fractures
and is unconscious. An emergency craniotomy
is
required, regarding informed consent for the surgical procedure, which of the
following is the best action?
a) Call the police to
identify the client and locate the family
b) Obtain a court
order for the surgical procedure
c) Ask the emergency
medical services team to sign the informed consent
d) Transport the
victim to the operating room for surgery
438.
What does assessing for no refusal means?
A) That the person
has not already refused treatment
B) That the person
cannot or is unable to refuse treatment
C) That the person
does not already have an advanced decision
D) The person is
already detained/ being treated under the mental health act.
439.
Barbara, a 75-year old patient from a nursing home was admitted on your ward
because of fractured neck of femur after
a
trip. She will require an open-reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) procedure
to correct the injury. Which of the following
statements
will help her understand the procedure?
a) You are going to
have an ORIF done to correct your fracture.
b) Some metal screws
and pins will be attached to your hip to help with the healing of your broken
bone.
c) The operation will
require a metal fixator implanted to your femur and adjacent bones to keep it
secured
d) The ORIF procedure
will be done under general anaesthesia by an orthopaedic surgeon
440.
What is right in case of consent among children under 18.
a) Only children
between 16-18 are competent to give it.
b) Parents are
responsible to give consent with children
c) Children who are
intellectually developed and understand matters can give consent
441.
Recommended preoperative fasting times are:
a) 2-4 hours
b) 6-12 hours
c) 12-14
hours
442.
A patient is being prepared for a surgery and was placed on NPO. What is the
purpose of NPO?
A. Prevention of
aspiration pneumonia
B. To facilitate
induction of pre-op meds
C. For abdominal
procedures
D. To decrease
production of fluids
443.
Which is the safest and most appropriate method to remove hair pre-operatively?
a) Shaving
b) Clipping
c) Chemical removal
d) Washing
444.
Who should mark the skin with an indelible pen ahead of surgery?
A) The nurse should
mark the skin in consultation with the patient
B) A senior nurse
should be asked to mark the patient's skin
C) The surgeon should
mark the skin
D) It is best not to
mark the patient's skin for fear of distressing the patient.
445.
A patient is scheduled to undergo an Elective Surgery. What is the least thing
that should be done?
A. Assess/Obtain the
patient’s understanding of, and consent to, the procedure, and
a share in the
decision making process.
B. Ensure
pre-operative fasting, the proposed pain relief method, and expected
sequelae are carried
out anddiscussed.
C. Discuss the risk
of operation if it won’t push through.
D. The documentation
of details of any discussion in the anaesthetic record.
446.
Safe moving and handling of an anaesthetized patient is imperative to reduce
harm to both the patient and staff. What is the
minimum
number of staff required to provide safe manual handling of a patient in
theatre?
A) 3 (1 either side,
1 at head).
B) 5 (2 each side, 1
at head).
C) 4 (1 each side, 1
at head, 1 at feet).
D) 6 (2 each side, 1
at head, 1 at feet).
447.
You are the nurse assigned in recovery room or post anaesthetic care unit. The
main priority of care in such area is:
a) Keeping airway
intact
b) keeping patient
pain free
c) keeping
neurological condition stable
d) keeping relatives
informed of patient’s condition
448.
As a registered nurse in a unit what would consider as a priority to a patient
immediately post operatively?
A) pain relief
B) blood loss
C) airway patency
449.
Gurgling sound from airway in a postoperative client indicates what
a) Complete
obstruction of lower airway
b) Partial
obstruction of upper airway
c) Common sign of a
post-operative patient
450.
Accurate postoperative observations are key to assessing a patient's
deterioration or recovery. The Modified Early
Warning
Score (MEWS) is a scoring system that supports that aim. What is the primary
purpose of MEWS?
a) Identifies
patients at risk of deterioration.
b) Identifies
potential respiratory distress.
c) improves
communication between nursing staff and doctors.
d) Assesses the
impact of pre-existing conditions on postoperative recovery
Read Also :
451.
What serious condition is a possibility for patients positioned in the Lloyd
Davies position during surgery?
A) Stroke
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Compartment
syndrome
D) There are no
drawbacks to the Lloyd Davies position
452.
A patient has just returned from theatre following surgery on their left arm.
They have a PCA infusion connected and
from
the admission, you remember that they have poor dexterity with their right
hand. They are currently pain free. What
actions
would you take?
A) Educate the
patient's family to push the button when the patient asks for it. Encourage
them to tell the nursing staff when they
leave the ward so
that staff can take over.
B) Routinely offer
the patient a bolus and document this clearly.
C) Contact the pain
team/anaesthetist to discuss the situation and suggest that the means of
delivery are changed.
D) The patient has
paracetamol q.d.s. written up, so this should be adequate pain relief
453.
The night after an exploratory laparotomy, a patient who has a nasogastric tube
attached to low suction reports nausea. A
nurse
should take which of the following actions first?
A) Administer the
prescribed antiemetic to the patient.
B) Determine the
patency of the patient's nasogastric tube.
C) Instruct the
patient to take deep breaths.
Assess the patient
for pain
454.
You are looking after a postoperative patient and when carrying out their
observations, you discover that they
are
tachycardic and anxious, with an increased respiratory rate. What could be
happening? What would you do?
a) The patient is
showing symptoms of hypovolaemic shock. Investigate source of fluid loss,
administer fluid replacement and
get medical support.
b) The patient is
demonstrating symptoms of atelectasis. Administer a nebulizer, refer to
physiotherapist for assessment.
c) The patient is
demonstrating symptoms of uncontrolled pain. Administer prescribed analgesia,
seek assistance from medical team.
d) The patient is
demonstrating symptoms of hyperventilation. Offer reassurance, administer
oxygen
455.
Patient is post of repair of tibia and fibula possible signs of compartment
syndrome include
A) Numbness and
tingling
B) Cool dusky toes
C) Pain
D) Toes swelling
E) All of the above
456.
Now the medical team encourages early ambulation in the post-operative period.
which complication is least prevented by
this?
A) Tissue wasting
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Wound infection
D) Pneumonia
457.
if a client is experiencing hypotension post operatively, the head is not
tilted in which of the following surgeries
a) Chest surgery
b) Abdominal surgery
c) Gynaecological
surgery
d) Lower limb surgery
458.
You went back to see Mr Derby who is 1 day post-herniorraphy. As you approach
him he complained of difficulty of
breathing
with respiration rate of 23 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation 92% in
room air. What is your next action
to
help him?
a) give him oxygen
b) give him pain
relief
c) give him
antibiotics
d) give him
nebulisers
459.
Barbara was screaming in pain later in the day despite the PCA in-situ. You
refer back to your nurse in charge for a
stronger
pain killer. She refused to call the doctor because her pain relief was
reassessed earlier. What will you do next?
A. Continue to refer
back to her until she calls the doctor
B. Encourage Barbara
to continuously use the PCA
C. Give Barbara some
sedatives to keep her calm
D. Wait until her
pain stops
460.
How soon after surgery is the patient expected to pass urine?
A) 1-2 hours
B) 2-4 hours
C) 4-6 hours
D) 6-8 hours
461.
A patient has just returned to the unit from surgery. The nurse transferred him
to his bed but did not put up the side
rails.
The patient fell and was injured. What kind of liability does the nurse have?
a) None
b) Negligence
c) Intentional tort
d) Assault and
battery
462. Which of these is
not a symptom of an ectopic pregnancy?
A. Pain
B. Bleeding
C. Vomiting
D. Diarrhoea
463.
A young woman gets admitted with abdominal pain & vaginal bleeding. Nurse
should consider an ectopic
pregnancy.
Which among the following is not a symptom of ectopic pregnancy?
a) Pain at the
shoulder tip
b) Dysuria
c) Positive pregnancy
test
464.
The signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy except:
a) Vaginal bleeding
b) Positive pregnancy
test
c) Shoulder tip pain
d) Protein excretion
exceeds 2 g/day
465.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
a) Alcohol abuse
b) Smoking
c) Tubal or pelvic
surgery
d) previous ectopic
pregnancy
466.
What is not a sign of meconium aspiration
a) Floppy in
appearance
b) Apnoea
c) Crying
467.
An 18 year old 26 week pregnant woman who uses illicit drugs frequently, the
factors in risk for which one of the following:
a) Spina bifida
b) Meconium
aspiration
c) Pneumonia
d) Teratogenicity
468.
Common minor disorder in pregnancy?
a) abdominal pain
b) heart burn
c) headache
469.
An unmarried young female admitted with ectopic pregnancy with her friend to
hospital with complaints of abdominal pain. Her
friend
assisted a procedure and became aware of her pregnancy and when the family
arrives to hospital, she reveals the truth. The
family
reacts negatively. What could the nurse have done to protect the
confidentiality of the patient information?
a. should tell the
family that they don’t have any rights to know the patient information b.
that the friend was
mistaken and the doctor will confirm the patient’s condition
c. should insist
friend on confidentiality
d. should have asked
another staff nurse to be a chaperone while assisting a procedure
470.
Jenny was admitted to your ward with severe bleeding after 48 hours following
her labour. What stage of post
partum
haemorrhage is she experiencing?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Emergency
471.
Postpartum haemorrhage: A patient gave birth via NSD. After 48 hours, patient
came back due to bleeding, bleeding
after
birth is called post partum haemorrhage. What type?
A. primary postpartum
haemorrhage
B. secondary
postpartum haemorrhage
C. tertiary
postpartum haemorrhage
D. lochia
472.
A young mother who delivered 48hrs ago comes back to the emergency department
with post partum haemorrhage.
What
type of PPH is it?
a) primary post
partum haemorrhage
b) secondary post
partum haemorrhage
c) tertiary post
partum haemorrhage.
473.
A new mother is admitted to the acute psychiatric unit with severe postpartum
depression. She is tearful and states, "I
don't
know why this happened to me I was so excited for my baby to come, but now I
don't know!" Which of the following
responses by the
nurse is MOST therapeutic?
a) Maybe you weren't
ready for a child after all."
b) Having a new baby
is stressful, and the tiredness and different hormone levels don't help. It
happens to many new mothers and
is very treatable.
c) What happened once
you brought the baby home? Did you feel nervous?
d) Has your husband
been helping you with the housework at all?"
474.
In a G.P clinic when you assessing a pregnant lady you observe some bruises on
her hand. When you asked her about
this
she remains silent. What is your action?
a) Call her husband
to know what is happening
b) Tell her that you
are concerned of her welfare and you may need to share this information appropriately
with the people who
offer help
c) Do nothing as she
does not want to speak anything
d) Call the police
475.
A client is admitted to the labour and delivery unit. The nurse performs a
vaginal exam and determines that the client’s
cervix
is 5cm dilated with 75% effacement. Based on the nurse’s assessment the client
is in which phase of labour?
A.
Active
B.
Latent
C.
Transition
D.
Early
476.
After the physician performs an amniotomy, the nurse’s first action should be
to assess the:
A.
Degree
of cervical dilation
B.
Fetal
heart tones
C.
Client’s
vital signs
D.
Client’s
level of discomfort
477.
The
physician has ordered an injection of RhoGam for the postpartum client whose
blood type is A negative but whose baby is
O positive. To
provide postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGam should be administered:
A.
Within
72 hours of delivery
B.
Within
one week of delivery
C.
Within
two weeks of delivery
D.
Within
one month of delivery
478.
The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of
cigarette smoke on fetal development.
Which
characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during
pregnancy?
A.
Low
birth weight
B.
Large
for gestational age
C.
Preterm
birth, but appropriate size for gestation
D.
Growth
retardation in weight and length
479.
A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in
labour. The nurse should tell the client
that
labour has probably begun when:
A.
Her
contractions are two minutes apart.
B.
She
has back pain and a bloody discharge.
C.
She
experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination.
D.
Her
contractions are five minutes apart.
480.
A client is admitted to the labour and delivery unit complaining of vaginal
bleeding with very little discomfort. The
nurse’s
first action should be to:
A.
Assess
the fetal heart tones.
B.
Check
for cervical dilation.
C.
Check
for firmness of the uterus.
D.
Obtain
a detailed history
481.
The
nurse is discussing breastfeeding with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is
contraindicated in the postpartum client with:
A.
Diabetes
B.
HIV
C.
Hypertension
D.
Thyroid
disease
482.
The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. The nurse will
expect the neonate to be:
A.
Hypoglycemic,
small for gestational age
B.
Hyperglycemic,
large for gestational age
C.
Hypoglycemic,
la rge for gestational age
D.
Hyperglycemic,
small for gestational age
483.
A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks pregnant. The most
definitive sign of pregnancy is:
A.
Elevated
human chorionic gonadatropin
B.
The
presence of fetal heart tones
C.
Uterine
enlargement
D.
Breast
enlargement and tenderness
484.
The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during
pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet
the
nutritional needs of the pregnant client?
A.
Hamburger
patty, green beans, French fries, and iced tea
B.
Roast
beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola
C.
Baked
chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea
D.
Fish
sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee
485.
The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is
consistent with a diagnosis of a
ruptured
ectopic pregnancy?
A.
Painless
vaginal bleeding
B.
Abdominal
cramping
C.
Throbbing
pain in the upper quadrant
D.
Sudden,
stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
486.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an ominous periodic change in the
fetal heart rate?
A.
A
fetal heart rate of 120–130bpm
B.
A
baseline variability of 6–10bpm
C.
Accelerations
in FHR with fetal movement
D.
A
recurrent rate of 90–100bpm at the end of the contractions
487.
The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most
appropriate initial action would be to:
A.
Notify
her doctor.
B.
Start
an IV.
C.
Reposition
the client.
D.
Readjust
the monitor.
488.
As the client reaches 6cm dilation, the nurse notes late decelerations on the
fetal monitor. What is the most likely
explanation
of this pattern?
A.
The
baby is sleeping.
B.
The
umbilical cord is compressed.
C.
There
is head compression.
D.
There
is uteroplacental insufficiency.
489.
The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 1 para 0 in
labour. Which one would be most appropriate
for
the primagravida as she completes the early phase of labour?
A.
Impaired
gas exchange related to hyperventilation
B.
Alteration
in placental perfusion related to maternal position
C.
Impaired
physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment
D.
Potential
fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake
490.
A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4cm dilated, with intact membranes
and a fetal heart tone rate of 160–170bpm. The
nurse
decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this
implementation is:
A.
The
cervix is closed.
B.
The
membranes are still intact.
C.
The
fetal heart tones are within normal limits.
D.
The
contractions are intense enough for insertion of an internal monitor.
491.
A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take
which of the following actions at this time?
A.
Anticipate
the need for a Caesarean section.
B.
Apply
an internal fetal monitor.
C.
Place
the client in Genu Pectoral position.
D.
Perform
an ultrasound.
492.
The obstetric client’s fetal heart rate is 80–90 during the contractions. The
first action the nurse should take is:
A.
Reposition
the monitor.
B.
Turn
the client to her left side.
C.
Ask
the client to ambulate.. The
client’s T-cell count is extremely low.
D.
Prepare
the client for delivery
493.
Which observation would the nurse expect to make after an amniotomy?
A.
Dark
yellow amniotic fluid
B.
Clear
amniotic fluid
C.
Greenish
amniotic fluid
D.
Red
amniotic fluid
494.
The client with pre-eclampsia is admitted to the unit with an order for
magnesium sulfate. Which action by the
nurse
indicates the understanding of magnesium toxicity?
A.
The
nurse performs a vaginal exam every 30 minutes.
B.
The
nurse places a padded tongue blade at the bedside.
C.
The
nurse inserts a Foley catheter.
D.
The
nurse darkens the room.
495.
Which selection would provide the most calcium for the client who is four
months pregnant?
A.
A
granola bar
B.
A
bran muffin
C.
A
cup of yogurt
D.
A
glass of fruit juice
496.
The nurse is monitoring a client with a history of stillborn infant. The nurse
is aware that nonstress test can be ordered
for
the client to:
a) Determine lung
maturity
b) Measure the fetal activity
c) Show the effect of
contractions on fetal heart rate
d) Measure the
well-being of the fetus
497.
The nurse is teaching basic infant care to a group of first-time parents. The
nurse should explain that a sponge bath
is
recommended for the first two weeks of life because:
A.
New
parents need time to learn how to hold the baby.
B.
The
umbilical cord needs time to separate.
C.
Newborn
skin is easily traumatized by washing.
D.
The
chance of chilling the baby outweighs the benefits of bathing.
498.
When the nurse checks the fundus of a client on the first postpartum day, she
notes that the fundus is firm, is at the level
of
the umbilicus, and is displaced to the right. The next action the nurse should
take is to:
A.
Check
t he client for bladder distention.
B.
Assess
the blood pressure for hypotension.
C.
Determine
whether an oxytocic drug was given.
D.
Check
for the expulsion of small clots.
499.
A client is admitted to the labour and delivery unit in active labour. During
examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on
the
perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?
A.
Document
the finding.
B.
Report
the finding to the doctor.
C.
Prepare
the client for a C-section.
D.
Continue
primary care as prescribed.
500.
A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP
syndrome. Which laboratory finding is
associated
with HELLP syndrome?
A.
Elevated
blood glucose
B.
Elevated
platelet count
C.
Elevated
creatinine clearance
D.
Elevated
hepatic enzymes
501.
The nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client with pre-eclampsia.
Which method is used to elicit the
biceps
reflex?
A.
The
nurse places her thumb on the muscle inset in the antecubital space and taps
the thumb briskly with the reflex hammer.
B.
The
nurse loosely suspends the client’s arm in an open hand while tapping the back
of the client’s elbow.
C.
The
nurse instructs the client to dangle her legs as the nurse strikes the area
below the patella with the blunt side of the reflex hammer.
D.
The
nurse instructs the client to place her arms loosely at her side as the nurse
strikes the muscle insert just above the wrist.
502.
Which observation in the newborn of a diabetic mother would require immediate
nursing intervention?
A.
Crying
B.
Wakefulness
C.
Jitteriness
D.
Yawning
503.
The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must
closely observe for side effects associated with
drug
therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is:
A.
Decreased
urinary output
B.
Hypersomnolence
C.
Absence
of knee jerk reflex
D.
Decreased
respiratory rate
504.
A newborn with narcotic abstinence syndrome is admitted to the nursery. Nursing
care of the newborn should include:
A.
Teaching
the mother to provide tactile stimulation
B.
Wrapping
the newborn snugly in a blanket
C.
Placing
the newborn in the infant seat
D.
Initiating
an early infant-stimulation program
505.
A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of
labour. Following the initiation of epidural
anesthesia,
the nurse should give priority to:
A.
Checking
for cervical dilation
B.
Placing
the client in a supine position
C.
Checking
the client’s blood pressure
D.
Obtaining
a fetal heart rate
506.
When assessing a labouring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse
should:
A.
Attempt
to replace the cord.
B.
Place
the client on her left side.
C.
Elevate
the client’s hips.
507.
A client who delivered this morning tells the nurse that she plans to
breastfeed her baby. The nurse is aware
that
successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the:
A.
Mother’s
educational level
B.
Infant’s
birth weight
C.
Size
of the mother’s breast
D.
Mother’s
desire to breastfeed
508.
The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labour. Which finding
should be reported to the physician immediately?
A.
The
presence of scant bloody discharge
B.
Frequent
urination
C.
The
presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid
D.
Moderate
uterine contractions
509.
The nurse is measuring the duration of the client’s contractions. Which
statement is true regarding the measurement of the
duration
of contractions?
A.
Duration
is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to
the beginning of the
next contraction.
B.
Duration
is measured by timing from the end of one contraction to
the beginning of the
next contraction.
C.
Duration
is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to
the end of the same
contraction.
D.
Duration
is measured by timing from the peak of one contraction to the end
of the same
contraction.
510.
The physician has ordered an intravenous infusion of Pitocin for the induction
of labour. When caring for the obstetric
client
receiving intravenous Pitocin, the nurse should monitor for:
A.
Maternal
hypoglycemia
B.
Fetal
bradycardia
C.
Maternal
hyperreflexia
D.
Fetal
movement
511.
A client with diabetes visits the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. Which
statement is true regarding insulin
needs
during pregnancy?
A.
Insulin
requirements moderate as the pregnancy progresses.
B.
A
decreased need for insulin occurs during the second trimester.
C.
Elevations
in human chorionic gonadotrophin decrease the need for insulin.
D.
Fetal
development depends on adequate insulin regulation.
512.
A client in the prenatal clinic is assessed to have a blood pressure of 180/96.
The nurse should give priority to:
A.
Providing
a calm environment
B.
Obtaining
a diet history
C.
Administering
an analgesic
D.
Assessing
fetal heart tones
513.
A primigravida, age 42, is six weeks pregnant. Based on the client’s age, her
infant is at risk for:
A.
Down
syndrome
B.
Respiratory
distress syndrome
C.
Turner’s
syndrome
D.
Pathological
jaundice
514.
A client with a missed abortion at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital.
The client will most likely be treated with:
A.
Magnesium
sulfate
B.
Calcium
gluconate
C.
Dinoprostone
(Prostin E.)
D.
Bromocrystine
(Parlodel)..
515.
Which statement made by the nurse describes the inheritance pattern of
autosomal recessive disorders?
A.
An
affected newborn has unaffected parents.
B.
An
affected newborn has one affected parent.
C.
Affected
parents have a one in four chance of passing on the defective gene.
D.
Affected
parents have unaffected children who are carriers.
516.
A pregnant client, age 32, asks the nurse why her doctor has recommended a
serum alpha fetoprotein. The nurse
should
explain that the doctor has recommended the test:
A.
Because
it is a state law
B.
To
detect cardiovascular defects
C.
Because
of her age
D.
To
detect neurological defects
517.
A client with hypothyroidism asks the nurse if she will still need to take
thyroid medication during the pregnancy.
The
nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that:
A.
There
is no need to take thyroid medication because the fetus’s
thyroid produces a
thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B.
Regulation
of thyroid medication is more difficult because the thyroid gland
increases in size
during pregnancy.
C.
It
is more difficult to maintain thyroid regulation during pregnancy due to
a slowing of
metabolism.
D.
Fetal
growth is arrested if thyroid medication is continued during pregnancy.
518.
The nurse is responsible for performing a neonatal assessment on a full-terminfant. At one minute, the nurse could
expect
to find:
A.
An
apical pulse of 100
B.
An
absence of tonus
C.
Cyanosis
of the feet and hands
D.
Jaundice
of the skin and sclera
519.
A client with sickle cell anaemia is admitted to the labour and delivery unit
during the first phase of labour. The
nurse
should anticipate the client’s need for:
A.
Supplemental
oxygen
B.
Fluid
restriction
C.
Blood
transfusion
D.
Delivery
by Caesarean section
520.
An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many
pounds at one year?
A.
14
pounds
B.
16
pounds
C.
18
pounds
D.
24
pounds
521.
A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a
nonstress test. The nonstress test:
A.
Determines
the lung maturity of the fetus
B.
Measures
the activity of the fetus
C.
Shows
the effect of contractions o n the fetal heart rate
D.
Measures
the neurological well-being of the fetus
A
full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?
A.
The
urethral opening is absent
B.
The
urethra opens on the top side of the penis
C.
The
urethral opening is enlarged
D.
The
urethra opens on the under side of the penis
A
gravida III para II is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that
the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated, with
complete
effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is:
A.
Alteration
in coping related to pain
B.
Potential
for injury related to precipitate delivery
C.
Alteration
in elimination related to anesthesia
D.
Potential
for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status
During
the assessment of a labouring client, the nurse notes that the FHT are loudest
in the upper-right quadrant. The infant is
most
likely in which position?
A.
Right
breech presentation
B.
Right
occipital anterior presentation
C.
Left
sacral anterior presentation
D.
Left
occipital transverse presentation
The
nurse is providing postpartum teaching for a mother planning to breastfeed her
infant. Which of the client’s
statements
indicates the need for additional teaching?
A.
“I’m
wearing a support bra.”
B.
“I’m
expressing milk from my breast.”
C.
“I’m
drinking four glasses of fluid during a 24-hour period.”
D.
“While
I’m in the shower, I’ll allow the water to run over my breasts.”
While
assessing the postpartal client, the nurse notes that the fundus is displaced
to the right. Based on this finding, the
nurse
should:
A.
Ask
the client to void.
B.
Assess
the blood pressure for hypotension.
C.
Administer
oxytocin.
D.
Check
for vaginal bleeding.
The
nurse is performing an initial assessment of a newborn Caucasian male delivered
at 32 weeks gestation. The nurse
can
expect to find the presence of:
A.
Mongolian
spots
B.
Scrotal
rugae
C.
Head
lag
D.
Polyhydramnios
The
nurse is monitoring a client with a history of stillborn infants. The nurse is
aware that a nonstress test can be ordered
for
this client to:
A.
Determine
lung maturity
B.
Measure
the fetal activity
C.
Show
the effect of contractions on fetal heart rate
D.
Measure
the well-being of the fetus
An
infant’s Apgar score is 9 at five minutes. The nurse is aware that the most
likely cause for the deduction of one point is:
A.
The
baby is hypothermic.
B.
The
baby is experiencing bradycardia.
C.
The
baby’s hands and feet are blue.
D.
The
baby is lethargic.
An
adolescent primigravida who is 10 weeks pregnant attends the antepartal clinic
for a first check-up. To develop a teaching
plan,
the nurse should initially assess:
A.
The
client’s knowledge of the signs of preterm labor
B.
The
client’s feelings about the pregnancy
C.
Whether
the client was using a method of birth control
D.
The
client’s thought about future children
A
diabetic multigravida is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation
to determine the L/S ratio and phosphatidyl
glycerol
level. The L/S ratio is 1:1 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol is noted.
The nurse’s assessment of this data is:
A.
The
infant is at low risk for congenital anomalies.
B.
The
infant is at high risk for intrauterine growth retardation.
C.
The
infant is at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
D.
The
infant is at high risk for birth trauma.
522.
Which of the following best describes the Contingency Theory of Leadership?
a) Leaders behaviour
influence team members
b) Leaders grasp the
whole picture and their respective roles
c) The plan is
influenced by the outside force
d) The leader sees
the kind of situation, the setting, and their roles
523.
Which of the steps is NOT involved in Tuckman’s group formation theory?
a) Accepting
b) Norming
c) Storming
d) Forming
524.
Which is not a stage in the Tuckman Theory of contingency?
a) Forming
b) Storming
c) Norming
d) Analysing
525.
Which of the following nursing theorists developed a conceptual model based on
the belief that all persons should strive
to
achieve self-care?
a) Martha Rogers
b) Dorothea Orem
c) Florence
Nightingale
d) Cister Callista
Roy
526.
The contingency theory of management moves the manager away from which of the
following approaches?
a) No perfect solution
b) One size fits all
c) Interaction of the
system with the environment
d) a method of
combination of methods that will be most effective in a given situation.
527.
Which nursing delivery model is based on a production and efficiency model and
stresses a task-orientated approach?
a) Case management
b) Primary nursing
c) Differentiated
practice
d) Functional method
528.
C Clostridium difficile (C- diff) infections can be prevented by:
a) using hand gels
b) washing your hands
with soap and water
c) using repellent
gowns
d) limit visiting
times
529.
Causes of diarrhoea in Clostridium Difficile are:
a) Ulcerative colitis
- Ulcerative Colitis is a condition that causes inflammation and ulceration of
the inner lining of the rectum and colon
b) Hashimotos disease
- Hashimoto’s disease, also called chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis or
autoimmune thyroiditis, is an
autoimmune disease
c) Pseudomembranous
colitis -pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is an acute, exudative colitis usually
caused by Clostridium
difficile. PMC can
rarely be caused by other bacteria,
d) Crohn’s disease -
Crohn’s Disease is one of the two main forms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease, so
may also be called ‘IBD’. The
other main form of
IBD is a condition known as Ulcerative Colitis
530.
Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not do?
a) Use of hand gel/
alcohol rub
b) Use gloves
c) Patient has his
own set of washers
d) Strict
disinfection of pt’s room after isolation
531.
Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI.
After three days of taking them, she
developed
diarrhoea with blood stains. What is the most possible reason for this?
a) Antibiotics causes
chronic inflammation of the intestine
b) An anaphylactic
reaction
c) Antibiotic alters
her GI flora which made Clostridium-difficile to multiply
d) she is not taking
the antibiotics with food
532.
You are caring for a patient in isolation with suspected Clostridium difficile.
What are the essential key actions to
prevent
the spread of infection?
a) Regular hand
hygiene and the promotion of the infection prevention link nurse role.
b) Encourage the
doctors to wear gloves and aprons, to be bare below the elbow and to wash hands
with alcohol hand rub. Ask
for cleaning to be
increased with soap-based products.
c) seek the infection
prevention team to review the patient’s medication chart and provide regular
teaching sessions on the 5 moments
of hand hygiene.
Provide the patient and family with adequate information.
d) Review
antimicrobials daily, wash hands with soap and water before and after each
contact with the patient, ask for
enhanced cleaning
with chlorine-based products and use gloves and aprons when disposing of body
fluids.
533.
When treating patients with clostridium difficile, how should you clean your
hands?
a) Use alcohol hand
rubs
b) Use soap &
water
c) Use hand wipes
d) All of the above
534.
What infection control steps should not be taken in a patient with diarrhoea
caused by Clostridium Difficile?
a) Isolation of the
patient
b) All staff must
wear aprons and gloves while attending the patient
c) All staff will be
required to wash their hands before and after contact with the patient, their
bed linen and soiled items
d) Oral
administration of metronidazole, vancomycin, fidaxomicin may be required
e) None of the above
535.
Patient with clostridium deficile has stools with blood and mucus. due to which
condition?
a) Ulcerative colitis
b) Chrons disease
c) Inflammatory bowel
disease
536.
Which of the following is NOT a stage in the life cycle of viruses?
a) Attachment
b) Uncoating
c) Replication
d) Dispersal
538.
Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of bacteria?
a) Cell wall
b) Eukaryocyte
c) Spherical
d) Spores
539.
For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key
preventative measure?
a) Airborne
b) Direct &
indirect contact
c) Droplet
d) All of the above
540.
5 moments of hand hygiene include all of the following except:
a) Before Patient
Contact
b) Before a clean /
aseptic procedure
c) Before Body Fluid
Exposure Risk
d) After Patient
contact
e) After Contact with
Patient’s surrounding
541. If you were asked
to take ‘standard precautions’ what would you expect to be doing?
A. Wearing gloves, aprons and mask when caring
for someone in protective isolation
B. Taking precautions when handling blood and ‘high
risk’ body fluids so as not to pass on any infection to the patient
C. Using appropriate hand hygiene, wearing
gloves and aprons where necessary, disposing of used sharp instruments safely
and providing care in
a suitably clean environment to protect yourself and the patients
D. Asking relatives to wash their hands when
visiting patients in the clinical setting
542.
Define standard precaution:
a) The precautions
that are taken with all blood and ‘high-risk’ body fluids.
b) The actions that
should be taken in every care situation to protect patients and others from
infection, regardless of what is known of
the patient’s status
with respect to infection.
c) It is meant to
reduce the risk of transmission of blood bourne and other pathogens from both
recognized and unrecognized sources.
d) The practice of
avoiding contact with bodily fluids, by means of wearing of nonporous articles
such as gloves, goggles, and
face shields.
543.
Except which procedure must all individuals providing nursing care must be
competent at?
a) Hand hygiene
b) Use of protective
equipment
c) Disposal of waste
d) Aseptic technique
544.
Which client has the highest risk for a bacteraemia?
A. Client with a peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC)
line B. Client with a
central venous catheter (CVC)
C. Client with an
implanted infusion port
D. Client with a
peripherally inserted intravenous line
545.
In infection control, what is a pathogen?
A) A micro-organism
that is capable of causing infection, especially in vulnerable individuals, but
not normally in healthy ones.
B) Micro-organisms
that are present on or in a person but not causing them any harm.
C) Indigenous
microbiota regularly found at an anatomical site.
D) Antibodies
recruited by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects like
bacteria and viruses.
546.
When disposing of waste, what colour bag should be used to dispose of
offensive/ hygiene waste?
a) Orange
b) Yellow
c) Yellow and black
stripe
d) Black
547.
Before giving direct care to the patient, u should
A) Wear mask, aprons
B) Wash hands with
alchohol rub
C) Handwashing using
6 steps
D) Take all standard
precautions
548.
What infection is thought to be caused by prions?
a) Leprosy
b) Pneumocystis
jirovecii
c) Norovirus
d) Creutzfeldt Jakob
disease
e) None of the above
549.
For which of the following modes of transmission is good hand hygiene a key
preventative measure?
A. Airborne
B. Direct contact
C. Indirect contact
D. All of the above
550.
If a patient requires protective isolation, which of the following should you advise
them to drink?
a) Filtered water
only
b) Fresh fruit juice
and filtered water
c) Bottled water and
tap water
d) Tap water only
e) long-life fruit
juice and filtered water
Read Also :
551.
Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be sent for energy recovery at
energy from waste facilities can include:
a) Stoma or catheter
bags - The Management of Waste from health, social and personal care -RCN
b) Unused
non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging
c) Used sharps from
treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines
d) Empty medicine
bottles
552.
The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for decontamination of hands before and
after direct patient contact and clinical
care
is recommended when:
a) Hands are visibly
soiled
b) Caring for
patients with vomiting or diarrhoeal illness, regardless of whether or not
gloves have been worn
c) Immediately after
contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact skin
553.
You are told a patient is in "source isolation". What would you do
& why?
a) Isolating a
patient so that they don't catch any infections
b) Nursing an
individual who is regarded as being particularly vulnerable to infection in
such a way as to minimize the transmission
of potential
pathogens to that person.
c) Nursing a patient
who is carrying an infectious agent that may be risk to others in such a way as
to minimize the risk of the infection
spreading elsewhere
in their body.
d) Nurse the patient
in isolation, ensure that you wear apprpriate personal protective equipment
(PPE) & adhere to strict hygiene ,for
the purpose of
preventing the spread of organism from that patient to others.
554.
If you were told by a nurse at handover to take “standard precautions” what
would you expect to be doing?
a) Taking precautions
when handling blood & ‘high risk’ body fluids so that you don’t pass on any
infection to the patient.
b) Wearing gloves,
aprons & mask when caring for someone in protective isolation to protect
yourself from infection
c) Asking relatives
to wash their hands when visiting patients in the clinical setting
d) Using appropriate
hand hygiene, wearing gloves & aprons when necessary, disposing of used
sharp instruments safely &
providing care in a
suitably clean environment to protect yourself & the patients
555.
Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: ( Select x 2
correct answers)
a) Faulty brakes on a
wheelchair
b) Suspected side
effects to blood factor, except immunoglobulin products
c) Counterfeit or
fake medicines or medical devices
556.
Where will you put infectious linen?
a) red plastic bag
designed to disintegrate when exposed to heat
b) red linen bag
designed to hold its integrity even when exposed to heat
c) yellow plastic bag
for disposal
557.
What would make you suspect that a patient in your care had a urinary tract
infection?
a) The doctor has
requested a midstream urine specimen.
b) The patient has a
urinary catheter in situ, and the patients wife states that he seems more
forgetful than usual.
c) The patient has
spiked a temperature, has a raised white cell count (WCC), has new-onset
confusion and the urine in his
catheter bag is
cloudy.
d) The patient has
complained of frequency of faecal elimination and hasn’t been drinking enough.
558.
Which of the following would indicate an infection?
a) Hot, sweaty, a
temperature of 36.5°C, and bradycardic.
b) Temperature of
38.5°C, shivering, tachycardia and hypertensive.
c) Raised WBC,
elevated blood glucose and temperature of 36.0°C.
d) Hypotensive, cold
and clammy, and bradycardic.
559.
A client was diagnosed to have infection. What is not a sign or symptom of
infection?
a) A temperature of
more than 38°C
b) warm skin
c) Chills and sweats
d) Aching muscles
560.
Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement operation.
After 15 minutes, you went back to
check
her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may
indicate:
a) Renal Colic
b) Urine Infection
c) Common adverse
reaction
d) Serious adverse
reaction
561.
As an infection prevention and control protocol, linens soiled with infectious
bodily fluids should be disposed of in
what
means?
a) Placed in yellow
plastic bag to be disposed of
b) Placed in
dissolvable red linen bag and washed at high temperature
c) Placed in yellow
linen bag, and washed at high temperature
d) Placed in red
plastic bag to be incinerated at high temperature
562.
What percentage of patients in hospital in England, at the time of the 2011
National Prevalence survey, had an infection?
a) 4.6%
b) 6.4%
c) 14%
d) 16%
563.
How to take an infected sheet for washing according to UK standard
a) Take infected
linen in yellow bag for disposal
b) Take in red
plastic bag, that disintegrates in high temperature
c)
Use red linen bag that allows washing in high temperatures
d) Use a white bag
564.
There has been an outbreak of the Norovirus in your clinical area. Majority of
your staff have rang in sick. Which of
the
following is incorrect?
a.) Do not allow
visitors to come in until after 48h of the last episode
b.) Tally the
episodes of diarrhoea and vomiting
c.) Staff who has the
virus can only report to work 48h after last episode
d.) Ask one of the
staff who is off-sick to do an afternoon shift on same day
565.
One of your patients in bay 1 having episodes of vomiting in the last 2 days
now. The Norovirus alert has been
enforced.
The other patients look concerned that he may spread infection. What is your
next action in the situation?
a) Seek the infection
control nurse’s advice regarding isolation
b) Give the patient
antiemetic to control the vomiting
c) Offer the patient
a lot of drinks to rehydrated
d) Tell the other
patients that vomiting will not cause infection to others
566.
Infected linen should be placed in:
a) Red plastic bag
that disintegrates at high temperature
b) Red linen bag that
can withstand high temperatures
c) White linen bag
that can withstand high temperatures
d) Yellow plastic bag
that cannot withstand high temperatures.
567.
When do you wear clean gloves?
a) Assisting with
bathing
b) Feeding a client
c) When there is
broken skin on hand
d) Any activity which
includes physical touch of a client
568.
The nurse needs to validate which of the following statements pertaining to an
assigned client?
a) The client has a
hard, raised, red lesion on his right hand.
b) A weight of 185
lbs. is recorded in the chart
C. The client
reported an infected toe
D. The client's blood
pressure is 124/70. It was 118/68 yesterday.
569.
Which bag do you place infected linen?
a) water-soluble
alginate polythene bag before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no
more than ¾ full
b) orange waste bag,
before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full
c) white linen bag,
after sorting, no more than ¾ full
570.
Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following: ( Select x 2
correct answers)
A. Faulty brakes on a
wheelchair
B. Suspected side
effects to blood factor, except immunoglobulin products
C. Counterfeit or
fake medicines or medical devices
D. Ascites and
increased vascular pattern on the skin
571.
For which type of waste should orange bags be used?
a) Waste that
requires disposal by incineration
b) Offensive/hygiene
waste
c) Waste which may be
‘treated
d) Offensive waste
572.
Jenny, a nursing assistant working with you in an Elderly Care Ward is showing
signs of norovirus infection. Which of
the
following will you ask her to do next?
A. Go home and avoid
direct contact with other people and preparing food for others until at least
48 hours after her symptoms have
disappeared
B. Disinfect any
surfaces or objects that could be contaminated with the virus
C. Flush away any
infected faeces or vomit in the toilet and clean the surrounding toilet
area D. Avoid eating
raw oysters
573.
Mrs X had developed Steven-Johnson syndrome whilst on Carbamazepine. She is now
being transferred for the ITU to
a
bay in the Medical ward. Which patient can Mrs X share a baby with?
a) a patient with
MRSA
b) a patient with
diarrhoea
c) a patient with a
fever of unknown origin
d) a patient with
Stephen Johnson Syndrome
574.
Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?
a) Flushed face
b) Headache and
dizziness
c) Tachycardia and
fall in blood pressure
d) Peripheral oedema
575.
Which is not a sign or symptom of speed shock?
a) Headache
b) A tight feeling in
the chest
c) Irregular pulse
d) Cyanosis
576.
While giving an IV infusion your patient develops speed shock. What is not a
sign and symptom of this?
A. Circulatory collapse
B. Peripheral oedema
C. Facial flushing
D. Headache
577.
Signs of hypovolemic shock would include all except:
a) restlessness,
anxiety or confusion
c) shallow
respiratory rate, becoming weak
d) rising pulse rate
e) low urine output
of <0.5 mL/kg/h E. pallor (pale, cyanotic skin) and later sweating
578.
What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-3)?
a) hypoxemia
b) tachycardia and
hyperventilation
c) hypotension
d) acidosis
579.
All but one are signs of anaphylaxis:
a) itchy skin or a
raised, red skin rash
b) swollen eyes,
lips, hands and feet
c) hypertension and
tachycardia
d) abdominal pain,
nausea and vomiting
580.
Which of the following are signs of anaphylaxis?
a) swelling of tongue
and rashes
b) dyspnoea,
hypotension and tachycardia
c) hypertension and
hyperthermia
d) cold and clammy
skin
581.
You were asked by the nursing assistant to see Claudia whom you have recently
given trimetophrim 200 mgs PO because
of
urine infection. When you arrived at her bedside, she was short of breath,
wheezy and some red patches evident over her
face.
Which of the following actions will you do if you are suspecting anaphylaxis?
a) call for help and
give oxygen
b) give oxygen and
salbutamol nebs if prescribed and call for help
c) give oxygen,
administer adrenaline 500 mcg IM, give salbutamol nebs if prescribed and call
for help
d) call for help,
give oxygen, administer adrenaline 500 mcg IM, give salbutamol nebs if
prescribed.
582.
A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you
expect to see?
a) The patient will
have a low blood pressure (hypotensive) and will have a fast heart rate
(tachycardia) usually associated with skin and
mucosal changes.
b) The patient will
have a high blood pressure (hypertensive) and will have a fast heart rate
(tachycardia).
c) The patient will
quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or
circulation. This is accompanied by skin
and mucosal changes
d) The patient will
experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate and be itchy all over
583.
What are the signs and symptoms of shock during early stage (stage 1-3)?
(CHOOSE 3 ANSWERS)
A. hypoxemia
B. tachycardia and
hyperventilation
C. hypotension
D. Acidosis
584.
After lumbar puncture, the patient experienced shock. What is the etiology
behind it?
a) Increased ICP
b) Headache
c) Side effect of
medications
d) CSF leakage
585.
A patient has collapsed with an anaphylactic reaction. What symptoms would you
expect to see?
a) The patient will
have a low blood pressure (hypotensive) & will have a fast heart rate
(tachycardia) usually associated with skin &
mucosal changes
b) The patient will
have a high blood pressure (hypertensive) & will have a fast heart rate
(tachycardia)
c) The patient will
quickly find breathing very difficult because of compromise to their airway or
circulation. This is accompanied by skin
& mucosal changes
d) The patient will
experience a sense of impending doom, hyperventilate & be itchy all over
586.
Leonor, 72 years old patient is being treated with antibiotics for her UTI.
After three days of taking them, she
developed
diarrhoea with blood stains. What is the most possible reason for this?
a) Antibiotics causes
chronic inflammation of the intestine
b) An anaphylactic
reaction
c) Antibiotic alters
her GI flora which made Clostridium-difficile to multiply
d) she is not taking
the antibiotics with food
587.
The following are signs & symptoms of hypovolemic shock, except:
a) Confusion
b) Rapid heart rate
c) Strong pulse
d) Decrease Blood
Pressure
588.
Signs and symptoms of septic shock?
a) Tachycardia,
hypertension, normal WBC, non pyrexial
b) Tachycardia,
hypotension, increased WBC, pyrexial
c) Tachycardia, ,
increased WBC, normotension, non pyrexial
d) Decreased heart
rate, decreased blood pressure, normal WBC and pyrexial
589.
Which of the following is not a criteria for anaphylactic reaction:
a) Sudden onset and
rapid progression of symptoms
b) life threatening
airway and/ or breathing and/or circulation problems
c) skin and/or
mucosal changes ( flushing, urticaria and angioedema)
d) skin and mucosal
changes only
e) A and B only
f) all of the above
e) A, B and C
590.
Mrs X was taken to the Accident and Emergency Unit due to anaphylactic shock.
The treatment for Mrs X will depend on
the
following except:
a.) Location
b.) Number of
Responders
c.) Equipment and
Drugs available
d.) Triage system in
the A&E
591.
Mark, 48 years old, has been exhibiting signs and symptoms of anaphylactic
reaction. You want to make sure that he is in
a
comfortable position. Which of the following should you consider?
a) Mark should be sat
up if he is experiencing airway and breathing problems.
b) Mark should be
lying on his back if he is assessed to be breathing and unconscious.
c) Mark should be sat
up if his blood pressure is too low.
d) Mark should be
encouraged to stand up if he feels faint.
592.
The following are ways to remove factors that trigger anaphylactic reaction
except for one.
a) It is not
recommended to make the patient should not be forced to vomit after
food-induced anaphylaxis.
b) Definitive
treatment should not be delayed if removing a trigger is not feasible.
c) Any drug suspected
of causing an anaphylactic reaction should be stopped.
d) After a bee sting,
do not touch the stinger for about a maximum of 3 hours.
593.
Mrs Smith has been assessed to have a cardiac arrest after anaphylactic
reaction to a medication. Cardiopulmonary
Resuscitation
(CPR) was started immediately. According to the Resuscitation Council UK, which
of the following statements
is
true?
a.) Intramuscular
route administration of adrenaline is always recommended during cardiac arrest
after anaphylactic reaction.
b.) Intramuscular
route for adrenaline is not recommended during cardiac arrest after
anaphylactic reaction.
c.) Adrenaline can be
administered intradermally during cardiac arrest after anaphylactic reaction.
d.) None of the Above
594.
An Eight year old girl with learning disabilities is admitted for a minor
surgery, she is very restless and agitated and wants
her
mother to stay with her, what will you do?
A. Advice the mother
to stay till she settles.
b. Act according to
company policy
c. Tell her you will
take care of the child
d. Inform the Doctor
595. What is meant by ‘Gillick
competent’?
A. Children under the
age of 12 who are believed to have enough intelligence, competence and
understanding to fully
appreciate what's
involved in their treatment.
B. Children under the
age of 16 who are believed to have enough intelligence, competence and
understanding to fully
appreciate what's
involved in their treatment
C. Children under the
age of 18 who are believed not to have enough intelligence, competence and
understanding to fully appreciate
what's involved in
their treatment.
D. Children under the
lawful age of consent who are believed not to have enough intelligence,
competence and understanding to
596.
When communicating with children, what most important factor should the nurse
take into consideration?
a) Developmental
level
b) Physical
development
c) Nonverbal cues
d) Parental
involvement
597.
Normal heart rate for 1 to 2 years old?
a) 80 - 140 beats per
minute
b) 80 - 110 beats per
minute
c) 75 - 115 beats per
minute
598.
Which of the following is an average heart rate of a 1-2 year old child?
a) 110-120 bpm
b) 60-100 bpm
c) 140-160 bpm
d) 80-120 bpm
599.
You are assisting a doctor who is trying to assess and collect information from
a child who does not seem to understand
all
that the doctor is telling and is restless. What will be your best response?
a) Stay quiet and
remain with the doctor
b) Interrupt the doctor
and ask the child the questions
c) Remain with the
doctor and try to gain the confidence of the child and politely assess the
child's level of understanding and
help the doctor with
the information he is looking for
d) Make the child
quiet & ask his mother to stay with him
600.
Recognition of the unwell child is crucial. The following are all signs and
symptoms of respiratory distress in children
EXCEPT:
a) Lying supine
b) Nasal flaring
c) Intercostal and
sternal recession
d) adopting an upright position
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