NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS
601.
As you visit your patient during rounds, you notice a thin child who is shy and
not mingling with the group who seemed
to
be visitors of the patient. You offered him food but his mother told you not to
mind him as he is not eating much while all
of
them are eating during that time. As a nurse, what will you do?
a) inform social
service desk on suspected case of child neglect
b) ignore incident
since the child is under the responsibility of the mother
c) raise the
situation to your head nurse and discuss with her what intervention might be
done to help the child
602.
There is a child you are taking care of at home who has a history of
anaphylactic shock from certain foods, the nurse
is
feeding him lunch, he looks suddenly confused, breathless and acting different,
the nurse has access to emergency
drugs
access and the mobile phone, what will she do?
a) She will keep the
child awake by talking to him and call 911 for help
b) She will raise the
child’s legs and administer Adrenaline and call the emergency services
c) The nurse will
keep the child in standing position and try to reassure the child
603.
You are about to administer Morphine Sulfate to a paediatric patient. The
information written on the controlled drug
book
was not clearly written – 15 mg or 0.15 mg. What will you do first?
a. Not administer the
drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his
rounds b. Administer
0.15 mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a
paediatric patient
c. Double check the
medication label and the information on the controlled drug book; ring the
chemist to verify the dosage
d. Ask a senior staff
to read the medication label with you
604.
Management of moderate malnutrition in children?
a) supplimentary nutrition
b) immediate
hospitalization
c) weekly assessment
d) document intake
for three days
605.
You saw a relative of a client has come with her son, who looks very thin, shy
& frightened. You serve them food, but
the
mother of that child says "don't give him, he eats too much". You
should:
a) Raise your concern
with your nurse manager about potential for child abuse & ask for her
support
b) Ignore the mother
& ask the relative if the child is abused.
c) Ignore the
mother's advice & serve food to the child.
d) Ignore the
situation as she is the mother & knows better about her child.
606.
U just joined in a new hospital. U see a senior nurse beating a child with
learning disability. Ur role
a) Neglect the
situation as u r new to the scenario
b) Intervene at the
spot, speak directly to the senior in a non-confronting manner, and report to
management in writing
c) Inform the ward
in-charge after the shift
607.
A nurse finds it very difficult to understand the needs of a child with
learning disability. She goes to other nurses
and
professionals to seek help. How u interpret this action
a) The nurse is short
of self confidence
b) A nurse, who is
well aware of her limitations seeked help from others. She worked within her
competency.
c) She doesn’t have
the kind of courage a nurse should have
608.
Monica is going to receive blood transfusion. How frequently should we do her
observation?
A) Temperature and
Pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, and at the end of
bag/unit
B) Temperature,
pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then
after 15 min, then as indicated in local
guidelines, and
finally at the end of bag/unit.
C) Temperature,
pulse, blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood
transfusion, then at end of bag.
D) Pulse, blood
pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag
609.
A mentally capable client in a critical condition is supposed to receive blood
transfusion. But client strongly refuses
the
blood product to be transfused. What would be the best response of the nurse?
a) Accept the
client's decision and give information on the consequences of his actions
b) Let the family decide
c) Administer the
blood product against the patients decision
d) The doctor will
decide
610.
Fred is going to receive a blood transfusion. How frequently should we do his
observations?
a) Temperature and
pulse before the blood transfusion begins, then every hour, a nd at the end of
bag/unit.
b) Temperature,
pulse, blood pressure and respiration before the blood transfusion begins, then
after 15 minutes, then as indicated
in local guidelines,
and finally at the end of the bag/unit.
c) Temperature, pulse,
blood pressure and respiration and urinalysis before the blood transfusion,
then at end of bag.
d) Pulse, blood
pressure and respiration every hour, and at the end of the bag.
611.
Patient developed elevated temperature and pain in the loin during blood
transfusion. This is indicative of:
a) Severe blood
transfusion reaction
b) Common blood
transfusion reaction
612.
Mrs. Smith is receiving blood transfusion after a total hip replacement
operation. After 15 minutes, you went back to
check
her vital signs and she complained of high temperature and loin pain. This may
indicate:
a) Renal Colic
b) Urine Infection
c) Common adverse
reaction
d) Serious adverse
reaction
613.
During blood transfusion, a patient develops pyrexia, and loin pain. Rn
interprets the situation as
a) Common reaction to
transfusion
b) Adverse reaction
to blood transfusion
c) Patient has
septicaemia
614.
What are the steps of the nursing Process?
a) Assessing,
diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating
b) Assessing,
planning, implementing, evaluating, documenting
c) Assessing,
observing, diagnosing, planning, evaluating
d) Assessing,
reacting, implementing, planning, evaluating
615.
What is clinical benchmarking?
A. The practice of
being humble enough to admit that someone else is better at something and being
wise enough to try to learn how
to match and even
surpass them at it.
B. A systematic
process in which current practice and care are compared to, and amended to
attain, best practice and
care C. A system that
provides a structured approach for realistic and supportive practice
development D. All of the above
616.
Where is revision on the nursing process done? During:
a) Diagnosis
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
617.
What does intermediate care not consist of?
a) Maximise dependent
living
b) Prevent
unnecessary acute hospital admission
c) Prevent premature
admission to long-term residential care
d) Support timely
discharge form hospital
618.
A nurse documents vital signs without actually performing the task. Which
action should the charge nurse take
after
discussing the situation with the nurse?
a) Charge the nurse
with malpractice
b) Document the
incident
c) Notify the board
of nursing
d) Terminate
employment
619.
The nurse has made an error in documenting client care. Which appropriate
action should the nurse take?
a) Draw a line
through error, initial, date and document correct information
b) Document a late
addendum to the nursing note in the client’s chart
c) Tear the
documented note out of the chart
d) Delete the error
by using whiteout
620.
Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
A. When the patient
is medically fit
B. On the admission
assessment
C. When transport is
available
621.
What is comprehensive nursing assessment?
a) It provides the
foundation for care that enables individuals to gain greater control over their
lives and enhance their health status.
b) An in-depth
assessment of the patient’s health status, physical examination, risk factors,
psychological and social aspects of
the patient’s health
that usually takes place on admission or transfer to a hospital or healthcare
agency.
c) An assessment of a
specific condition, problem, identified risks or assessment of care; for
example, continence assessment,
nutritional
assessment, neurological assessment following a head injury, assessment for day
care, outpatient consultation for
a specific condition.
d) It is a continuous
assessment of the patient’s health status accompanied by monitoring and
observation of specific problems
identified.
622.
When do you plan a discharge?
a) 24 hrs within
admission
b) 72 hrs within
admission
c) 48 hrs within
admission
d) 12 hrs within
admission
623.
All but one describes holistic care:
A. A system of
comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical,
emotional, social,
economic, and spiritual needs of the person; his or her response to illness;
and the effect of the illness on the ability
to meet self-care
needs.
B. It embraces all
nursing practice that has enhancement of healing the whole person from birth to
death as it’s goals.
C. An all nursing
practice that has healing the person as its goal.
D. It involves
understanding the individual as a unitary whole in mutual process with the
environment.
624.
Nursing process is best illustrated as:
A. Patient with
medical diagnosis
B. task oriented care
C. Individualized
approach to care
D. All of the above
625.
Which statement is not correct about the nursing process?
a) An organised,
systematic and deliberate approach to nursing with the aim of improving
standards in nursing care.
b) It uses a
systematic, holistic, problem solving approach in partnership with the patient
and their family.
c) It is a form of
documentation.
d) It requires
collection of objective data.
626.
Which of the following sets of needs should be included in your service user’s
person centred care plan?
a) social, spiritual
and academic needs
b) medical,
psychological and financial needs
c) physical, medical,
social, psychological and spiritual needs
d) a and b only
e) all of the above?
627.
A nurse explains to a student that the nursing process is a dynamic process.
Which of the following actions by the
nurse
best demonstrates this concept during the work shift?
a) Nurse and client
agree upon health care goals for the client
b) Nurse reviews the
client's history on the medical record
c) Nurse explains to
the client the purpose of each administered medication
d) Nurse rapidly
reset priorities for client care based on a change in the client's condition
628.
The rehabilitation nurse wishes to make the following entry into a client's
plan of care: "Client will re-establish a pattern of
daily
bowel movements without straining within two months." The nurse would
write this statement under which section of
the
plan of care?
A) Long-term goals
B) Short-term goals
C) Nursing orders
D) Nursing
dianosis/problem list
629.
Nursing process is best illustrated as:
a) Patient with
medical diagnosis
b) task oriented care
c) Individualized
approach to care
d) All of the above
630.
In caring for a patient, the nurse should?
a) whenever possible
provide care that is culturally sensitive and according to patients preference
b) ask the patient
and their family about their culture
c) be aware of the
patient’s culture
d) disregard the
patient’s culture
631.
All individuals providing nursing care must be competent at which of the
following procedures?
a) Hand hygiene and
aseptic technique
b) Aseptic technique only
c) Hand hygiene, use
of protective equipment, and disposal of waste
d) Disposal of waste
and use of protective equipment
e) All of the above
632.
Nursing care should be
a) Task oriented
b) Caring medical and
surgical patient
c) Patient oriented,
individualistic care
d) All
633.
The client reports nausea and constipation. Which of the following would be the
priority nursing action?
A. Collect a stool
sample
B. Complete an
abdominal assessment
C. Administer an
anti-nausea medication
D. Notify the physician
634.
Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
a) When the patient
is medically fit
b) On the admission
assessment
c) When transport is
available
635.
Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the
"problem" part of nursing diagnosis?
a) Oxygenation
saturation 93%
b) Output 500 ml in 8
hours
c) Anxiety
d) Grimacing
636.
When do you see problems or potential problems?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation
637.
A walk-in client enters into the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal
pain and diarrhea. The nurse takes the
client's
vital sign hereafter. What phrase of nursing process is being implemented here
by the nurse?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation
638.
How do you value dignity & respect in nursing care? Select which does not
apply:
A. We value every
patient, their families or carers, or staff.
B. We respect their
aspirations and commitments in life, and seek to understand their priorities,
needs, abilities and
limits. C. We find
time for patients, their families and carers, as well as those we work with.
D. We are honest and
open about our point of view and what we can and cannot do.
639.
Which of the following items of subjective client data would be documented in
the medical record by the nurse?
A. Client's face is
pale
B. Cervical lymph
nodes are palpable
C. Nursing assistant
reports client refused lunch
D. Client feel
nauseated
640.
How the nurse assesses the quality of care given
A) reflective process
b) clinical bench
marking
c) peer and patient
response
d) all the above
641.
What are the professional responsibilities of the qualified nurse in medicines
management?
a) Making sure that
the group of patients that they are caring for receive their medications on
time. If they are not competent
to administer
intravenous medications, they should ask a competent nursing colleague to do so
on their behalf.
b) The safe handling
and administration of all medicines to patients in their care. This includes
making sure that patients understand
the medicines they
are taking, the reason they are taking them and the likely side effects.
c) Making sure they
know the names, actions, doses and side effects of all the medications used in
their area of clinical practice.
d) To liaise closely
with pharmacy so that their knowledge is kept up to date.
642.
Who has the overall responsibility for the safe and appropriate management of
controlled drugs within the clinical area?
a) All registered
nurses
b) The nurse in
charge
c) The consultant
d) All staff
643.
What are the key reasons for administering medications to patients?
a) To provide relief
from specific symptoms, for example pain, and managing side effects as well as
therapeutic purposes.
b) As part of the
process of diagnosing their illness, to prevent an illness, disease or side
effect, to offer relief from symptoms or to treat
a disease
c) As part of the
treatment of long term diseases, for example heart failure, and the prevention
of diseases such as asthma.
d) To treat acute
illness, for example antibiotic therapy for a chest infection, and side effects
such as nausea.
644.
You were on your medication rounds and the emergency alarm goes off. What will
you do first?
a.) Lock your trolley
b.) Rush to your
patient’s bedroom
c.) Check first if
everyone had their meds
d.) a and c
645.
What are the most common types of medication error?
a) Nurses being
interrupted when completing their drug rounds, different drugs being packaged
similarly and stored in the same
place and calculation
errors.
b) Unsafe handling
and poor aseptic technique.
c) Doctors not
prescribing correctly and poor communication with the multidisciplinary team.
d) Administration of
the wrong drug, in the wrong amount to the wrong patient, via the wrong route
646.
Registrants must only supply and administer medicinal products in accordance
with one or more of the
following
processes, except:
a) Carer specific
direction (CSD)
b) Patient medicines
administration chart (may be called medicines administration record MAR)
c) Patient group
direction (PGD)
d) Medicines Act
exemption
647.
Independent and supplementary nurse and midwife are those who are?
a) nurse and midwife
student who cleared medication administration exam
b) nurses and
midwives educated in appropriate medication prescription for certain
pharmaceuticals
c) registrants
completed a programme to prescribe under community nurse practitioner’s drug
formulary
d) nurses and
midwives whose name is entered in the register
648.
Which of the following people is not exempted from paying a prescribed
medication?
a) children under the
age of 16
b) women of child
bearing age
c) people who are
receiving support allowance
d) pensioners of age
65 and above
649.
As a RN when you are administering medication, you made an error. Taking health
and safety of the patient into
consideration,
what is your action?
a) Call the
prescriber. Report through yellow card scheme and document it in patient notes
b) Let the next of
kin know about this and document it
c) Document this in
patient notes and inform the line manager
d) Assess for
potential harm to client, inform the line manager and prescriber and document
in patient notes
650.
You noticed that a colleague committed a medication administration error. Which
should be done in this situation?
A. You should provide
a written statement and also complete a Trust incident form.
B. You should inform
the doctor.
C. You should report
this immediately to the nurse in charge.
D. You should inform
the patient.
651.
The nurses on the day shift report that the controlled drug count is incorrect.
What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Report the
discrepancy to the nurse manager and pharmacy immediately
B. Report the
incident to the local board of nursing
C. Inform a doctor
D. Report the
incident to the NMC
652.
Which of the following is not a part of the 6 rights of medication
administration?
A. Right time
B. Right route
C. Right medication
D. Right reason
653.
nOne of the following is not true about a delegation responsibility of a
medication registrant:
a) Nurses are
accountable to ensure that the patient, carer or care assistant is competent to
carry out the task.
b) Nurses can
delegate medication administration to student nurses / nurses on supervision.
c) Nurses can
delegate medication administration to unregistered practitioners to assist in
ingestion or application of the
medicinal product.
d) All of the above
654.
A patient approached you to give his medications now but you are unable to give
the medicine. What is your initial action?
a) Inform the doctor
b) Inform your team
leader
c) Inform the
pharmacist
d) Routinely document
meds not given
655.
You were on a night shift in a ward and has been allocated to dispose
controlled medications. Which of the following
is
correct?
a) Controlled drugs
destruction and pharmacy stock check should be done at different times.
b.) Controlled drugs
should be destroyed with the use of the Denaturing Kit.
c.) Excessive
quantities of controlled drugs can be stored in the cupboard whilst waiting for
destruction.
d.) None of the Above
656.
General guidance for the storage of controlled drugs should include the
following except:
a.) cupboards must be
kept locked when not in use
b.) keys must only be
available to authorised member of staff
c.) regular drugs can
also be stored in the controlled drug storage
d.) the cupboard must
be dedicated to the storage of controlled drugs
657.
On checking the stock balance in the controlled drug record book as a newly
qualified nurse, you and a colleague notice
a
discrepancy. What would you do?
a) Check the
cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found,
contact pharmacy to resolve the issue. You
will also complete an
incident form.
b) Document the
discrepancy on an incident form and contact the senior pharmacist on duty.
c) Check the
cupboard, record book and order book. If the missing drugs aren't found the
police need to be informed.
d) Check the
cupboard, record book and order book and inform the registered nurse or person
in charge of the clinical area. If the
missing drugs are not
found then inform the most senior nurse on duty. You will also complete an
incident form.
658.
You were running a shift and a pack of controlled drugs were delivered by the
chemist/pharmacist whilst you were
giving
the morning medications. What would you do first?
a) keep the
controlled drugs in the trolley first, then store it after you have done
morning drugs
b) Count the
controlled drugs, store them in controlled drug cabinet and record them on the
controlled drug book
c) Count the
controlled drugs, store them in the medication trolley and record them on the
controlled drug book
d) Record them in the
controlled drug book and delegate one of the carers to store them in the
controlled drug cabinet
659.
In a nursing and residential home setting, how will you manage your time and
prioritise patients’ needs whilst doing
your
medication rounds in the morning?
a. Start
administering medications from the patient nearest to the treatment room.
b. Start
administering medications to patients who are in the dining room, as this is
where most of them are for breakfast.
c. Check the list of
patients and identify the ones who have Diabetes Mellitus and Parkinson’s
disease.
d. All of the above.
660.
After having done your medication rounds, you have realised that your patient
has experienced the adverse effect of the
drug.
What will be your initial intervention?
a) You must do the
physical observations and notify the General Practitioner.
b) You must ring the
General Practitioner and request for a home visit.
c) You must
administer medication from the Homely Remedy Pod after having spoken to the
General Practitioner.
d) You must observe
your patient until the General Practitioner arrives at your nursing home.
661.
You are transcribing medications from prescription chart to a discharge letter.
Before sending this letter what action must
be
taken?
a)
A registrant should sign this letter
b) Transcribing is
not allowed in any circumstances
c) The letter has to
be checked by a nurse in charge
d) Letter can be sent
directly to the patient after transcribing
662.
A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self-administer the
medication, has been assessed for suitability
at
Level 2 This means that:
a) The registrant is
responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products and the supervision
of the administration process
ensuring the patient
understands the medicinal product being administered
b) The patient
accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the medicinal
products
c) None of the above
- The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products.
At administration time, the patient
will ask the
registrant to open the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer
the medication under the supervision of
the registrant
663.
What are the potential benefits of self-administration of medicines by
patients?
a) Nurses have more
time for other aspects of patient care and it therefore re duces length of
stay.
b) It gives patients
more control and allows them to take the medications on time, as well as giving
them the opportunity to address any
concerns with their
medication before they are discharged home.
c) Reduces the risk
of medication errors, because patients are in charge of their own medication.
d) Creates more space
in the treatment room, so there are fewer medication errors
664.
The MARS says that Benedict is on TID Macrogol. You have notice that the nurses
have been writing “A” for refused.
What
do you do?
a.) Write “A” on the
MARS, because Benedict is expected to refuse it.
b.) Offer the
Macrogol, and write “A” if the patient refuses it.
c.) Check bowel
charts and cancel Macrogol on MARS if bowels are fine.
d.) Change the prescription
to PRN.
665.
A patient is rapidly deteriorating due to drug over dose what to do?
A. Assess ABCDE, call
help, keep anaphylactic kit
B. Call for help,
keep anaphylactic kit, assess ABCDE
C. Assess ABCDE, keep
anaphylactic kit, inform doctor, call for help
666.
patient bring own medication to hospital and wants to self-administer what is
your role ? allow him
a) give medications
back to relatives to take back
b) keep it in locker,
use from medication trolley
c) explain to patient
about medication before he administer it
667.
A client experiences an episode of pulmonary oedema because the nurse forgot to
administer the morning dose
of
furosemide (Lasix). Which legal element can the nurse be charged with?
e) Assault
f) Slander
g) Negligence
h) tort
668.
As a newly qualified nurse, what would you do if a patient vomits when taking
or immediately after taking tablets?
A. Comfort the
patient, check to see if they have vomited the tablets, & ask the doctor to
prescribe something different as these
obviously don’t agree
with the patient
B. Check to see if
the patient has vomited the tablets & if so, document this on the
prescription chart. If possible, the drugs may be
given again after the
administration of antiemetics or when the patient no longer feels nauseous. It
may be necessary to discuss an
alternative route of
administration with the doctor
C. In the future
administer antiemetics prior to administration of all tablets
D. Discuss with
pharmacy the availability of medication in a liquid form or hide the tablets in
food to take the taste away.
669.
A newly admitted client refusing to handover his own medications and this
includes controlled drugs. What is your action?
a) You have to take
it any way and document it
b) Call the doctor
and inform about the situation
c) Document this
refusal as these medications are his property and should not do anything
without his consent
d) Refuse the
admission as this is against the policy
670.
What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
a) Loop diuretic
b) Hypnotics
c) Betablockers
d) Nsaids
671.
Tony is prescribed Lanoxin 500 mcg PO. What vital sign will you asses prior to
giving the drug?
a) heart rate and
rhythm
b) respiration rate
and depth
c) temperature
d) urine output
672.
Patient has next dose of Digoxin but has a CR=58
a) Omit dose, record
why, and inform the doctor
b) Give dose and tell
the doctor
c)
Give
dose as prescribed
673.
Which drug to be avoided by a patient on digoxin?
a) corticosteroid
b) nsaid
674.
Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?
a) Allergies
b) Drug interactions
c) Other interactions
with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
d) Medical problems
(Thyroid problems, kidney disease, etc.
e) All of the above.
675.
Which of these medications is not administer with digoxin?
a) Diuretics
b) Corticosteroids
c) Antibiotics
d) NSAID’s
676.
Which of the following should be considered before giving digoxin?
1. Allergies
2. Drug interactions
3. Other interactions
with food or substances like alcohol and tobacco
4. Medical problems
(Thyroid problem, Kidney disease, etc.)
A. 1&2
B. 3&4
C. 1, 3, & 4
D. All of the above
677.
The nurse monitors the serum electrolyte level of a client who is taking digoxin.
Which of the following
electrolytes
imbalances is common cause of digoxin toxicity?
a) Hypocalcemia
b) Hypomagnesemia
c) Hypokalaemia
d) Hyponatremia
678.
Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief.
a.
Record
this in the controlled drug register book with the pharmacist
witnessing b. Put it in the patient’s medicine pod
c.
Store it in ward medicine cupboard
d.
Ask the pharmacist to give it to the patient
679.
You have been asked to give Mrs Patel her mid-day oral metronidazole. You have
never met her before. What do you
need
to check on the drug chart before you administered?
a) Her name and
address, the date of the prescription and dose.
b) Her name, date of
birth, the ward, consultant, the dose and route, and that it is due at 12.00.
c) Her name, date of
birth, hospital number, if she has any known allergies, the prescription for
metronidazole: dose, route, time,
date and that it is
signed by the doctor, and when it was last given
d) Her name and
address, date of birth, name of ward and consultant, if she has any known
allergies specifically to penicillin, that
prescription is for
metronidazole: dose, route, time, date and that it is signed by the doctor, and
when it was last given and who
gave it so you can
check with them how she reacted.
680.
You are caring for a Hindu client and it’s time for drug administration; the
client refuses to take the capsule referring to
the
animal product that might have been used in its making, what is the appropriate
action for the nurse to perform?
a) She will not
administer and document the ommissions in the patients chart
b) The nurse will
ignore the clients request and administer forcebily
c) The nurse will
open the capsule and administer the powdered drug
d) The nurse will
establish with the pharamacist if the capsule is suitable for vegetarians
681.
John, 18 years old is for discharge and will require further dose of oral
antibiotics. As his nurse, which of the following will
you
advise him to do?
a) Take with food or
after meals and ensure to take all antibiotics as prescribed
b) Take all
antibiotics and as prescribed
c) Take medicine
during the day and ensure to finish the course of medication
d) Take medicine and
stop when he feels better
682.
When should prescribed antibiotics to be administered to a septicemic patient
a) Immediately after
admission
b) After getting
blood culture result
c)
Immediately following blood drawn for culture
683.
You are the named nurse of Colin admitted at Respiratory ward because of chest
infection. His also suffers from
Parkinson's
syndrome. What medications will you ensure Colin has taken on regular time to
control his 'shaking'?
a) Co-careldopa
(Sinemet)
b) Co-amoxiclave
(augmentin)
c) Co-codamol
d) Co-Q10
684.
Your hospital supports the government’s drive on breastfeeding. One of your
patient being treated for urinary tract
infection
was visited by her husband and their 4 month old baby. She would like to
breastfeed her baby. What advise will you
give
her?
a. it is ok to
breastfeed as long as it is done privately
b. it is ok to
breastfeed because the hospital supports this practice c.
refrain from
breastfeeding as of now because of her UTI treatment d.
breast milk is the
best and she can feed her baby anytime they visit
685.
Describe the breathing pattern when a patient is suffering from Opioid
toxicity:
A. Slow and shallow
B. fast and shallow
C. slow and deep
D. Fast and deep
686.
What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids frequently?
a) Respiratory rate,
bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
b) Checking the
patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
c) Lung function
tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels
d) Daily completion
of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency with which
the patient reports breakthrough pain
687.
What advice do you need to give to a patient taking Allopurinol? (Select x 3
correct answers)
a) Drink 8 to 10 full
glasses of fluid every day, unless your doctor tells you otherwise.
b) Store allopurinol
at room temperature away from moisture and heat.
c) Avoid being near
people who are sick or have infections
d) Skin rash is a
common side effect, it will pass after a few days
688.
What instructions should you give a client receiving oral Antibiotics?
a)
Consume
it all at once
b)
take
the antibiotic with glass of water
c)
Take
the medication with meals and consume all the antibiotics
d)
take
the medication as prescribed and complete the course
689.
When the doc will prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
A) on admission
B) when septicemia is
suspected
C) when the blood
culture shows positive growth of organism
690.
After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit
becomes depressed. Which of the
following
evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
a) The treatment plan
is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
b) This is a normal
response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current
treatment plan.
c) This is a normal
response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal
behavior.
d) The treatment plan
is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant
691.
Johan, 25 year old, was admitted at Medical Assessment Unit because of urine
infection. During your assessment, he
admitted
using cannabis under prescription for his migraine and still have some in his
bag. What is your best reply to
him
about the cannibis?
a) Cannibis is a
class C drug under the UK Misuse of Drugs Act 1971.
b) A custodial
sentence of 28 days i s now given to anyone in possession 3 times or more
c) Cannabis is a
class B drug under the UK Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
d) Possession of
cannabis will incur a penalty of 3 months imprisonment with £2 000 fine
692.
A patient in your care is on regular oral morphine sulphate. As a qualified
nurse, what legal checks do you need to carry
out
every time you administer it, which are in addition to those you would check
for every other drug you administer?
a) Check to see if
the patient has become tolerant to the medication so it is no longer effective
as analgesia.
b) Check to see
whether the patient has become addicted.
c) Check the stock of
oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another registered nurse and
record this in the control drug
book; together, check
the correct prescription and the identity of the patient.
d) Check the stock of
oral morphine sulphate in the CD cupboard with another registered nurse and
record this in the control drug
book; then ask the
patient to prove their identity to you
693.
Which of the following drugs will require 2 nurses to check during preparation
and administration?
a) oral antibiotics
b) glycerine
suppositories
c) morphine tablet
d) oxygen
694.
A patient was on morphine at hospital. On discharge doctor prescribes fentanyl
patches. At home patient should
be
observed for which sign of opiate toxicity?
a) Shallow, slow
respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
b) Rapid, shallow
respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
c) Rapid wheezy
respiration, drowsiness, difficulty to walk, speak and think
695.
Manu is in persistent pain and has Oromorph PRN. All your carers are on their
rounds, and you are about to administer
this
drug. What would you do?
a.) Dispense 10 mL
Oromorph and administer immediately to relieve pain
b.) Dispense 10 mL
Oromorph and call one of the carers to witness
c.) Call one of the
carers to witness dispensing and administering the drug
696.
d.)
Administer the drug and ask one of the carers to sign the book after their pad
rounds
697.
Prothrombin time is essential during anticoagulation therapy. In oral
anticoagulation therapy which test is essential?
a) Activated
Thromboplastin Time - The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is a blood
test that is done to investigate bleeding
disorders and to
monitor patients taking ananticlotting drug (heparin).
b) International
Normalized Ratio - The Prothrombin time (PT) test, standardised as the INR test
is most often used to check how
well anticoagulant
tablets such as warfarin and phenindione are working
698.
Precise indicator of anticoagulation status when on oral anticoagulants
A) Ptt
B) aPTT
C) ct
D) INR
699.
You are the named nurse of Mr Corbyn who has just undergone an abdominal
surgery 4 hours ago. You have administered his
regular
analgesia 2 hours ago and he is still complaining of pain. Your most immediate,
most appropriate nursing action?
a) call the doctor
b) assist patient in
a comfortable position
c) give another dose
d)
look
for a heating pad
700.
Mild pain after surgery and pain is reduced by taking which medicine
a)paracetamol
b)ibuprofen
c)paracetamol with
codeine
d)paracetamol with
morphine
701.
John is also prescribed some medications for his Gout. Which of the following
health teaching will you advise him to do?
a) Increase fluid
intake 2 - 3 liters per day
b) Have enough
sunshine
c) Avoid paracetamol
(first line analgesic)
d) avoid dairy products
702.
A patient doesn’t take a tablet which is prescribed by a doc. Nurse should
a) Inform the
incident to senior nurse and ward in charge
b) Inform pharmacist
c) Do not inform
anybody…routinely chart
703.
Oral corticosteriods side effect
a) mood variation
b) edema
704.
On which step of the WHO analgesic ladder would you place tramadol and codeine?
a) Step 1: Non Opioid
Drugs
b) Step 2: Opioids
for Mild to Moderate Pain
c) Step 3: Opioids
for Moderate to Severe Pain
d) Herbal medicine
705.
What could be the reason why you instruct your patient to retain on its
original container and discard nitroglycerine
meds
after 8 weeks?
A) removing from its
darkened container exposes the medicine to the light and its potency will
decrease after 8 weeks
B) it will have a
greater concentration after 8weeks
706.
A sexually active female , who has been taking oral contraceptives develops
diarrohea. Best advice
a. Advise her to
refrain from sex till next periods
b. Advice to switch
to other measures like condoms, as diarrohea may reduce the effect of oral
contraceptives
707.
A patient is prescribed metformin 1000mg twice a day for his diabetes. While
talking with the patient he states “I never eat
breakfast
so I take a ½ tablet at lunch and a whole tablet at supper because I don’t want
my blood sugar to drop.” As his
primary
care nurse you:
A. Tell him he has
made a good decision and to continue
B. Tell him to take a
whole tablet with lunch and with supper
C. Tell him to skip
the morning dose and just take the dose at supper
D. Tell him to take
one tablet in the morning and one tablet in the evening as ordered
708.
A Ibuprofen 200mg tablet has been prescribed. You only have a 400mg coated
ibuprofen tablet. What should you do?
A. Give half of the
tablet
B. crush the tablet
and give half of the amount
C. order the
different dose of tablet from pharmacy
D. omit
709.
A patient develops shortness breath after administering 3
rd
dose
of penicillin. The patient is unwell. Ur response
a) Call for help,
ensure anaphylaxis pack is available, assess ABC, dnt leave the patient until
medical help comes
b) Assesss ABC, make
patient lie flat, reassure and continue observing
710.
An antihypertensive medication has been prescribed for a client with HTN. The
client tells the clinic nurse that they
would
like to take an herbal substance to help lower their BP. The nurse should take
which action?
a)
Tell
the client that herbal substances are not safe & should never be used
b)
Teach
the client how to take their BP so that it can be monitored closely
c) Encourage the
client to discuss the use of an herbal substance with the health care provider
711.
Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. Later on in your shift, he
complained of abdominal pain and
vomited.
He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you
give him?
a) Fentanyl buccal
patch
b) Ibuprofen enteric
coated capsules
c) Paracetamol
suppositories
d) Oromorphine
712.
Mr Jones has been having Type 6 and 7 stools today. As you are doing his
medications, which of the following would
you
not omit?
a.) Docusate Sodium 2
Capsules
b.) Lactulose 5 mL
c.) Senna 10 mL
d.) Simvastation 100
mg
713.
You are the night nurse in a nursing home. Maxine, 81 years old, has been
prescribed with Lorazepam PRN. You
have
assessed her to be wandering and talking to staff. When do you administer the
Lorazepam?
a.) Immediately due
to wandering
b.) As soon as
possible so she can go to bed
c.) When you see
signs of confusion
d.) When you see
signs of agitation
714.
Mrs Z has been very chesty the last few days. She has been having difficulty
with breathing. You have referred her to
the
GP, and requested for a home visit. What would probably be prescribed by the
GP?
a.) Stalevo 200
b.) Digoxin 40 mg
c.) Trimethoprim 100
mg
d.) Simvastatin 100
mg
715.
Annie is on Cefalexin QID. You were working on a night shift and have noticed
that the previous nurse has not signed
for
the last two doses. What should you do?
a.) Document the incident and speak to your Manager
b.) Check the rota,
find out when he is back and leave a note on the MARS for him to
sign c.) Find out
what the whistle blowing policy is about
d.) Ask the qualified
nurse to sign it on handover if it is definitely been administered
Alan
Smith has a history of Congestive Heart Failure. He has also been complaining
of general weakness. After taking
his
physical observations, you have noticed that he has pitting oedema on both
feet. Which of the following is incorrect?
a.) The Water Pill
can be prescribed to manage fluid retention.
b.) Lasix can be
prescribed for the pitting oedema.
c.) Furosemide and
Digoxin can be combined for patients with CHF.
d.) Furosemide will
increase Alan’s blood pressure, and lessen pitting oedema.
716.
Maria has ran out of Cavilon Cream. You have noted that her groins are very red
and sore. You can see that David has
spare
Cavilon tubes after checking the stocks. What will you do?
a.) Borrow a tube
from David’s stock as Maria’s groins are red and sore
b.) Use Canesten for
now and apply Cavilon once stock has arrived
c.) Request for a
repeat prescription from the GP, and have the stock delivered by the chemist
d.) Ring the GP and
ask him to see Maria’s groins, then prescribe Cavilon.
717.
Cherry has been prescribed with Estradiol tablet to be inserted twice a week at
night. You entered her bedroom and
noticed
she is fast asleep. What would you do?
a.) Try to gently
wake her up and insert her vaginal tablets.
b.) Allow her to get
some sleep and try to insert the vaginal tablet on your next turn rounds.
c.) Speak to her and
ask her to spread her legs, so you can insert her vaginal tablet.
d.) Document that the
tablet cannot be administered at all because the patient has refused.
718.
What is the best position in applying eye medications?
a) Sitting position
with head tilt to the right
b) Sitting position
with head tilt backwards
c) Prone position
with head tilt to the left
719.
How should eye drops be administered?
A. Pulling on the
lower eyelid and administering the eye drops
B. Pulling on the
upper eyelid and administering the eye drops
C. Tip the patients
head back and administer the eye drops into the cornea
D. Tip the patients
head to the side and administer the eye drops into the nasolacrimal system
720.
What fluid should ideally be used when irrigating eyes?
A. sterile 0.9%
sodium chloride
B. Sterile water
C. Chloramphenicol
drops
D. tap water
732.
Select which is not a proper way of Administering Eye Drops?
a) Administer the
prescribed number of drops, holding the eye dropper 1-2 cm above
the eye. If the
patient links or closes their eye, repeat the procedure
b) ask the patient to
close their eyes and keep them closed for 1-2 minutes
c) If administering
both drops and ointment, administer ointment first
d) Ask the patient to
sit back with neck slightly hyper extended or lie down
721.
All but one are signs of opioid toxicity:
A. CNS depression
(coma)
B. Pupillary miosis
C. Respiratory
depression (cyanosis)
D. Tachycardia
722.
Jim is to receive his eyedrops after his cataract operation. What is the best
position for Jim to assume when instilling
the
eyedrops?
a) sitting position,
head tilted backwards
b) supine position
for comfort
c) standing position
to facilitate drainage
d) recovery position
723.
What is not a good route for IM injection?
A. upper arm
B. stomach
C. thigh
D. buttocks
724.
Who is responsible in disposing sharps?
a) Registered nurse
b) Nurse assistant
c) Whoever used the
sharps
d) Whoever collects
the garbage
725.
What steps would you take if you had sustained a needlestick injury?
a) Ask for advice
from the emergency department, report to occupational health and fill in an
incident form.
b) Gently make the
wound bleed, place under running water and wash thoroughly with soap and water.
Complete an incident form and
inform your manager.
Co-operate with any action to test yourself or the patient for infection with a
bloodborne virus but do not obtain
blood or consent for
testing from the patient yourself; this should be done by someone not involved
in the incident.
c) Take blood from
patient and self for Hep B screening and take samples and form to Bacteriology.
Call your union representative
for support. Make an
appointment with your GP for a sickness certificate to take time off until the
wound site has healed so you dont
contaminate any other
patients.
Wash the wound with
soap and water. Cover any wound with a waterproof dressing to prevent entry of
any other foreign material
726.
You were administering a pre-operative medication to a patient via IM route.
Suddenly, you developed a needle-stick
injury.
Which of the following interventions will not be appropriate for you to do?
A. Prevent the wound
to bleed
B. Wash the wound
using running water and plenty of soap
C. Do not suck the
wound
D. Dry the wound and
over it with a waterproof plaster or dressing
727.
UK policy for needle prick injury includes all but one:
A. Encourage the
wound to bleed
B. Suck the wound
C. Wash the wound
using running water and plenty of soap
D. Don’t scrub the
wound while washing it
728.
One of your patient has challenged your recent practice of administering a
subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin
(LMWH)
without disinfecting the injection site. The guidelines for nursing procedures
do not recommend this method.
Which
of the following response will support your action?
A. “We were taught
during our training not to do so as it is not based on evidence.”
B. “Our guidelines,
which are based on current evidence, recommends a non-disinfection method of
subcutaneous injection.”
C. “I am glad you
called my attention. I will disinfect your injection site next time to ensure
your safety and peace of mind.”
D. “Disinfecting the
site for subcutaneous injection is a thing of the past. We are in an
evidence-based practice now.”
729.
IV injection need to be reconsidered when,?
A. Medicine is
available in tab form
B. Poor alimentary
absorption
C. Drug interaction
due to GI secretions
730.
You have discovered that the last dose of intravenous antibiotic administered
to service user was the wrong dose. Which
of
the following should you do?
a) Document the event
in the service user’s medical record only.
b) File an incident
report, and document the event in the service user’s medical record.
c) Document in the
service user’s medical record that an incident report was filed.
d) File an incident
report, but don’t document the even on the service user’s record, because
information about the incident is protected.
731.
It is important to read the label on every IV bag because:
a. Different IV
solutions are packaged similarly
b. The label contains
the expiration date of the IV fluid
c. A and B
d. A only
732.
Which is the most dangerous site for intramuscular injection?
a) ventrogluteal
b) deltoid
c) rectus femoris
d) dorsogluteal
733.
Which is the best site for giving IM injection on buttocks
a)
Upper outer quadrant
b) Upper inner
quadrant
c) Lower outer quadrant
d) Lower inner
quadrant
734.
When administering injection in the buttocks, it should be given:
a) right upper
quadrant
b) left upper
quadrant
c) right lower
quadrant
d)
left
lower quadrant
735.
What is not a good route for IM injection?
a) upper arm
b) stomach
c) thigh
d) buttocks
736.
The degree of injection when giving subcutaneous insulin injection on a site
where you can grasp 1 inch of tissue?
B) 45degrees
C) 40degrees
D) 25degrees
A
nursing assistant would like to know what a
patient group directive means. Your best reply will be:
a) they are specific
written instructions for the supply and administration of a licensed named
medicine
b) can be used by any
registered nurse or midwife caring for the patient
c) drugs can be used
outside the terms of their licence (“off label”),
d) it is an
alternative form of prescribing
737.
Which is the first drug to be used in cardiac arrest of any aetiology?
e) Adrenaline
f) Amiodarone
g) Atropine
h) Calcium chloride
738.
Why would the intravenous route be used for the administration of medications?
a) It is a useful
form of medication for patients who refuse to take tablets because they don’t
want to comply with treatment
b) It is cost
effective because there is less waste as patients forget to take oral
medication
c) The intravenous
route reduces the risk of infection because the drugs are made in a sterile
environment & kept in aseptic conditions
d) The intravenous
route provides an immediate therapeutic effect & gives better control of
the rate of administration as a more precise
dose can be
calculated so treatment can be more reliable
e) more precise dose can be calculated so
treatment can be more reliable
739.
What is the best nursing action for this insertion site. You have observed an
IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling,
pain
and warm.
a) start antibiotics
b) re-site cannula
c) call doctor
d) elevate
740.
What are the key nursing observations needed for a patient receiving opioids
frequently?
A. Respiratory rate,
bowel movement record and pain assessment and score.
B. Checking the
patent is not addicted by looking at their blood pressure.
C. Lung function
tests, oxygen saturations and addiction levels.
D. Daily completion
of a Bristol stool chart, urinalysis, and a record of the frequency
with which the
patient
reports breakthrough
pain.
741.
What is the best way to avoid a haematoma forming when undertaking
venepuncture?
a) Tap the vein hard
which will ‘get the vein up’, especially if the patient has fragile veins. This
will avoid bruising afterwards.
b) It is unavoidable
and an acceptable consequence of the procedure. This should be explained and
documented in the patient's notes.
c) Choosing a soft,
bouncy vein that refills when depressed and is easily detected, and advising
the patient to keep their arm straight
whilst firm pressure
is applied.
d) Apply pressure to
the vein early before the needle is removed, then get the patient to bend the
arm at a right angle whilst
applying firm
pressure
742.
A nurse is not trained to do the procedure of IV cannulation , still she tries
to do the procedure . You are the colleague
of
this nurse. What will be your action?
a) You should tell
that nurse to not to do this again
b) You should report
the incident to someone in authority
c) You must threaten
the nurse, that you will report this to the authority
d) You should ignore
her act
743.
You have just administered an antibiotic drip to you patient. After few
minutes, your patient becomes breathless
and
wheezy and looks unwell. What is your best action on this situation?
a) Stop the infusion,
call for help, anaphylactic kit in reach, monitor closely
b) continue the
infusion and observe further
c) check the vital
signs of the patient and call the doctor
d) stop the infusion
and prepare a new set of drip
744.
What is the most common complication of venepuncture?
a) Nerve injury
b) Arterial puncture
c) Haematoma
d) Fainting
745.
A patient with burns is given anesthesia using 50%oxygen and 50%nitrous oxide
to reduce pain during dressing. how
long
this gas is to be inhaled to be more effective?
A) 30 sec
B) 60sec
C)
1-2min
D) 3-5min
746.
You have observed an IV catheter insertion site w/ erythema, swelling, pain and
warm? What VIP score would
you
document on his notes?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
747.
After iv dose patient develops, rashes, itching, flushed skin
A) septecimia
B)
adverse reaction
748.
Hypokalemia can occur in which situation?
A) Addissons disease
B) When use
spironolactone
C) When use
furosemide
749.
Dehydration is of particular concern in ill health. If a patient is receiving
intravenous (IV) fluid replacement and is having
their
fluid balance recorded, which of the following statements is true of someone
said to be in a positive fluid balance?
B) The fluid output
has exceeded the input.
c) The doctor may
consider increasing the IV drip rate.
d) The fluid balance
chart can be stopped as positive in this instance means good.
e) The fluid input
has exceeded the output.
750.
A patient is on Inj. Fentanyl skin patch common side effect of the fentanyl
overdose is
a) Fast and deep
breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
b)
Slow and shallow breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
c) Noisy and shallow
breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
d) Wheeze and shallow
breathing, dizziness, sleepiness
751.
As a registered nurse, you are expected to calculate fluid volume balance of a
patient whose input is 2437 ml and output is
750
ml
a) 1887 (Negative
Balance)
b) 1197 (Negative
Balance)
c) 1887 (Positive
Balance)
752.
What does the term ‘breakthrough pain’ mean, and what type of prescription
would you expect for it?
a) A patient who has
adequately controlled pain relief with short lived exacerbation of pain, with a
prescription that has no regular
time of
administration of analgesia.
b) Pain on movement
which is short lived, with a q.d .s. prescription, when necessary.
c) Pain that is intense,
unexpected, in a location that differs from that previously assessed, needing a
review before a prescription
is written.
d) A patient who has
adequately controlled pain relief with short lived exacerbation of pain, with a
prescription that has 4
hourly frequency of
analgesia if necessary
753.
A patient is agitated and is unable to settle. She is also finding it difficult
to sleep, reporting that she is in pain. What
would
you do at this point?
a) Ask her to score
her pain, describe its intensity, duration, the site, any relieving measures
and what makes it worse, looking for
non verbal clues, so
you can determine the appropriate method of pain management.
b) Give her some
sedatives so she goes to sleep.
c) Calculate a pain
score, suggest that she takes deep breaths, reposition her pillows, return in 5
minutes to gain a comparative pain
score.
d) Give her any
analgesia she is due. If she hasn't any, contact the doctor to get some
prescribed. Also give her a warm milky drink and
reposition her
pillows. Document your action.
754.
How should we transport controlled drugs? Select which does not apply:
A. Controlled drugs
should be transferred in a secure, locked or sealed, tamper evident
container.
B. A person collecting
controlled drugs should be aware of safe storage and security
and the importance of
handing over to an
authorized person to obtain a signature.
C. Have valid ID
badge
D. None of the above
755.
Dennis was admitted because of acute asthma attack. later on in your shift he
complained of abdominal pain and
vomited.
He asked for pain relief. Which of the following prescribed analgesia will you
give him?
a) Fetanyl buccal
patch
b) Ibuprofen enteric
coated capsule
c) Paracetamol
suppositories
d) Oromorphine
756.
What do you mean by MRSA?
a)
methicillin-resistant staphyloccocusaureu
b) multiple resistant
staphylococcus antibiotic
757.
Patient is given penicillin. After 12 hrs he develops itching, rash and
shortness of breath. what could be the reason?
Speed shock
Allergic reaction
758.
Which color card is used to report adverse drug reaction?
a) Green Card
b) Yellow Card
c) White Card
d) Blue Card
759.
Which drug can be given via NG tube?
A) Modified release
hypertensive drugs
C) Crushing the
tablets
D) Lactulose syrup
E) Insulin
760.
Which of the following is considered a medication?
a) Whole blood
b) Albumin
c) Blood Clotting
Factors
d) Antibodies
761.
Pharmocokinetics can be described as:
a) The study of the
effects of drugs on the function of living systems
b) The absorption,
distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs within ghe body: what the body
does to drug
c) The studyof
mechanism of the action of drugs and other biochemical physiological effects: ‘what
the drug does to the body’
d) All of the above
762.
The medicine and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible
for what?
a) Licensing
medicinal products
b) Regulating the
manufacture, distribution and importation of medicines
c) Regulating which
medicine require a prescription and which can be available without a
prescription and under what circumstances
d) All of the above
763.
Medication errors account for around a quarter of the incidents that threaten
patient safety. In a study published in 2 000
it
was found that 10% of all patients admitted to hospital suffer an adverse event
(incident. How much of these incidents were
preventable?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 60%
764.
You are about to administer Morphine Sulphate to a paediatric patient. The
information written on the control drug
book
was not clearly written – 15mg or 0.15 mg. What will you do first?
a) Not administer the
drug, and wait for the General Practitioner to do his rounds
b) Administer 0.15
mg, because 15 mg is quite a big dose for a paediatric patient
c) Double check the
medication label and the information on the controlled drug book; ring the
chemist the verify the dosage
d) Ask a senior staff
to read the medication label for you
765.
After having done your medication round, you have realised that your patient
has experienced the adverse effect of the
drug.
What will be your initial intervention?
a) You must do the
physical observations and notify the General practitioner
b) You must ring the
General Practitioner and request for a home visit
c) You must
administer medication from the Homely Remedy Pod after having spoken to the
General Practitioner.
d) You must observe
your patient until the General Practitioner arrives at your nursing home
766.
Your patient has been prescribed Tramadol 50 mgs tablet for pain relief. Upon
receipt of the tablets from the
pharmacist
you will:
A.Record this in the
controlled drug register book with the pharmacist witnessing
B. Put it in the
patient’s medicine pod
C. Store it in ward
medicine cupboard
D. Ask the pharmacist
to give it to the patient
767.
The nurse is admitting a client, on initial assessment the nurse tries to
inquire the patient if he has been taking alternative
therapies
and OTC drugs but the client becomes angry and refuses to answer saying
thenurse is doing so because he
belongs
to an ethnic minority group, what is the nurse’s best response?
a) The nurse will
stop asking questions as it is upsetting to the patient
b) Wait and give some
time for the client to get adjusted to modern ways of hospitalisation
c) The nurse will
politely explain to the patient about alternative therapies such as St.Johns
Wort which interact with drugs
d) The nurse will
assign another nurse to ask questions
768.
Mrs X is diabetic and on PEG feed. Her blood sugar has been high during the
last 3 days. She is on Nystatin Oral Drops
QID,
regular PEG flushes and insulin doses. Her Humulin dose has been increased from
12 iu to 14 iu. The nurse practitioner
has
advised you to monitor her BM’s for the next two days. What will be your
initial intervention if her BM drops to 2.8 mmol
after
2 morning doses of 14 iu?
a.) Offer her a
chocolate bar and a glass of orange juice
b.) Flush glucose
syrup through her PEG Tube
c.) Ring the nurse
practitioner and ask if the insulin dose can be dropped to 12
iu d.) Contact the
General Practitioner and request for a visit
769.
Maisie is 86 years old, and has been in the nursing home for 5 years now. She
has been complaining of burning
sensation
in her chest and sour taste at the back of her throat. What would she most
likely to be prescribed with?
a.) Ranitidine
b.) Zantac
c.) Paracetamol
d.) Levothyroxine
e.) a and b
f.) b and
770.
A patient needs weighing, as he is due a drug that is calculated on bodyweight.
He experiences a lot of pain on
movement
so is reluctant to move, particularly stand up. What would you do?
A. Document clearly
in the patient’s notes that a weight cannot be obtained
B. Offer the patient
pain relief and either use bed scales or a hoist with scales built in
C. Discuss the case
with your colleagues and agree to guess his body weight until he agrees to
stand and use the chair
scales D. Omit the
drugs as it is not safe to give it without this information; inform the doctor
and document your actions
771.
A nurse is caring for clients in the mental health clinic. A women comes to the
clinic complaining of insomnia and
anorexia.
The patient tearfully tells the nurse that she was laid off from a job that she
had held for 15 years. Which of the
following
responses, if made by the nurse, is MOST appropriate?
A. “Did your company
give you a severance package?”
B. “Focus on the fact
that you have a healthy, happy family.”
C. “Losing a job is
common nowadays.”
D. “Tell me what
happened.”
772.
On physical examination of a 16 year old female patient, you notice partial
erosion of her tooth enamel and callus
formation
on the posterior aspect of the knuckles of her hand. This is indicative of:
a) Self-induced
vomiting and she likely has bulimia nervosa
b) A genetic disorder
and her siblings should also be tested
c) Self-mutilation
and correlates with anxiety
d) A connective
tissue disorder and she should be referred to dermatology
773.
An adolescent male being treated for depression arrives with his family at the
Adolescent Day Treatment Centre for
an
initial therapy meeting with the staff. The nurse explains that one of the
goals of the family meeting is to encourage
the
adolescent to:
a) Trust the nurse
who will solve his problem
b) Learn to live with
anxiety and tension
c) Accept
responsibility for his actions and choices
d) Use the members of
the therapeutic milieu to solve his problems
774.
A suicidal Patient is admitted to psychiatric facility for 3 days when suddenly
he is showing signs of cheerfulness
and
motivation. The nurse should see this as:
a) That treatment and
medication is working
b) She has made new
friends
c) she has finalize
suicide plan
775.
When caring for clients with psychiatric diagnoses, the nurse recalls that the
purpose of psychiatric diagnoses or
psychiatric
labelling to:
a) Identify those
individuals in need of more specialized care.
b) Identity those
individuals who are at risk for harming others
c) Define the nursing
care for individuals with similar diagnoses
d) Enable the
client's treatment team to plan appropriate and comprehensive care
776.
Which of the following situations on a psychiatric unit are an example of
trusting patient nurse relationship?
a) The patient tells
the nurse he feels suicidal
b) The nurse offers
to contact the doctor if the patient has a headache
c) The nurse gives
the patient his daily medications right on schedule
d) The nurse enforces
rules strictly on the unit
777.
Which of the following situations on a psychiatric unit are an example of a
trusting a patient-nurse relationship?
a) The patient tells
the nurse that he feels suicidal
b) The nurse offers
to contact the doctor if the patient has a headache
c) The nurse gives
the patient his daily medication right on schedule
d) The nurse enforce
rules strictly on the unit
778.
After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit
becomes depressed. Which of the
following
evaluations of the patient’s behavior by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
A) The treatment plan
is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
B) This is a normal
response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the current
treatment plan.
C) This is a normal
response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for suicidal
behavior.
779.
A patient with a history of schizophrenia is admitted to the acute psychiatric
care unit. He mutters to himself as the nurse
attempts
to take a history and yells. “I don’t want to answer any more questions! There
are too many voices in this room!”
Which
of the following assessment questions should the nurse as NEXT?
a) Are the voices
telling you to do things?
b) Do you feel as
though you want to harm yourself or anyone else?
c) Who else is
talking in this room? It’s just you and me
d) I don’t hear any
other voices
780.
The wife of a client with PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder) communicate to
the nurse that she is having trouble
dealing
with her husband's condition at home. Which of the following suggestions made
by the nurse is CORRECT?
a) Do not touch or
speak to your husband during an active flashback. Wait until it is finished to
give him support."
b) Discourage your
husband from exercising, as this will worsen his condition
c) Encourage your
husband to avoid regular contact with outside family members
d) Keep your
cupboards free of high-sugar and high-fat foods
781.
On a psychiatric unit, the preferred milieu environment is BEST describe as:
a) Fostering a
therapeutic social, cultural, and physical environment.
b) Providing an
environment that will support the patient in his or her therapeutic needs
c) Fostering a sense
of well-being and independence in the patient
d) Providing an
environment that is safe for the patient to express feelings
782.
A 17-year old patient who was involved in an orthopaedic accident is observed
not eating the meals that she previously
ordered
and refuses to take a bath even if she is already in recovery stage. As a nurse
what do you think is the best
explanation
for her reaction to the accident that happened to her?
a) Supression
b) Undoing
c) Regression
d) Repression
783.
After the suicide of her best friend Marry feels a sense of guilt, shame and
anger because she had not answered the phone
when
her friend called shortly before her death. Which of the following statements
is the most accurate when talking about
Mary’s
feelings?
a) Marry’s feelings
are normal and are a form of perceived loss
b) Marry’s feelings
are normal and are a form of situational loss.
c) Marry’s feelings
are not normal and are a form of situational loss.
d) Marry's feelings
are not normal and are a form of physical loss
784.
What is an indication that a suicidal patient has an impending suicide plan:
a) She/he is cheerful
and seems to have a happy disposition
b) talk or write
about death, dying or suicide
c) threaten to hurt
or kill themselves
d) actively look for
ways to kill themselves, such as stockpiling tablets
785.
Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Increased than in
normal people
b) Slightly decreased
than in normal people
c) Very low as
compared to normal people
d) Risk is same in
people with and without mental illness
786.
Which of the following cannot be seen in a depressed client?
a) Inactivity
b) Sad facial
expression
c) Slow monotonous
speech
d) Increased energy
787.
A patient with antisocial personality disorder enters the private meeting room
of a nurse unit as a nurse is meeting with a
different
patient. Which of the following statements by the nurse is BEST?
a) I’m sorry, but
HIPPA says that you can’t be her. Do you mind leaving?
b) You may sit with
us as long as you are quiet
c) I need you to
leave us alone
d) Please leave and I
will speak with you when I am done
788.
A patient asking for LAMA, the medical team has concern about the mental
capacity of the patient, what decision should
be
made?
a) Call the police
b) Let the patient go
c) Encourage the
patient to wait, by telling the need for treatment
789.
The nurse restrains a client in a client in a locked room for 3 hours until the
client acknowledge wo started a fight in
the
group room last evening. The nurse’s behaviour constitutes;
a) False imprisonment
b) Duty of care
c) Standard of care
practice
d) Contract of care
790.
A client has been voluntary admitted to the hospital. The nurse knows that
which of the following statements
is
inconsistent with this type of hospitalization
a) The client retains
all of his or her rights
b) The client has a
right to leave if not a danger to self or others
c) The client can
sign a written request for discharge
d) The client cannot
be released without medical advice.
791.
Risk for health issues in a person with mental health issues
a) Increased than in
normal people
b) Slightly decreased
than in normal people
c) Very low as
compared to normal people
d) Risk is same in
people with and without mental illness
792.
A patient got admitted to hospital with a head injury. Within 15 minutes, GCS
was assessed and it was found to be 15.
After
initial assessment, a nurse should monitor neurological status
a) Every 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
793.
You are caring for a patient who has had a recent head injury and you have been
asked to carry out neurological
observations
every 15 minutes. You assess and find that his pupils are unequal and one is
not reactive to light. You are
no
longer able to rouse him. What are your actions?
a) Continue with your
neurological assessment, calculate your Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) and document
clearly.
b) This is a medical
emergency. Basic airway, breathing and circulation should be attended to
urgently and senior help should
be sought.
c) Refer to the
neurology team.
d) Break down the
patient's Glasgow Coma Scale as follows: best verbal response V = XX, best
motor response M = XX and eye
opening E = XX. Use this
when you hand over.
794.
A patient in your care knocks their head on the bedside locker when reaching
down to pick up something they
have
dropped. What do you do?
a) Let the patient’s
relatives know so that they don’t make a complaint & write an incident
report for yourself so you remember the
details in case there
are problems in the future
b) Help the patient
to a safe comfortable position, commence neurological observations & ask
the patient’s doctor to come & review
them, checking the
injury isn’t serious. when this has taken place , write up what happened &
any future care in the nursing notes
c) Discuss the
incident with the nurse in charge , & contact your union representative in
case you get into trouble
d) Help the patient
to a safe comfortable position, take a set of observations & report the
incident to the nurse in charge who may call
a doctor. Complete an
incident form. At an appropriate time , discuss the incident with the patient
& if they wish , their relatives
795.
Glasgow Coma score (GCS) is made up of 3 component parts and these are:
a) eye opening
response/motor response/verbal response
b) eye opening
response/verbal response/pupil reaction to light
c) eye opening
response/motor response/pupil reaction to light
d) eye opening
response/limb power/verbal response
796.
You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his consciousness drops
and the size of one his pupil
becomes
smaller what should you do?
A) Call the doctor
B) Refer to neurology
team
C) Continue to
monitor patient using GCS and record
D) Consider this as
an emergency and prioritize ABC
797.
Patient had CVA, who will assess swallowing capability?
a) physiotherapy
nurse
b) psychotherapy
nurse
c) speech and
language therapist
d) neurologic nurse
798.
A patient suffered from CVA and is now affected with dysphagia. What should not
be an intervention to this type of patient?
a) Place the patient
in a sitting position / upright during and after eating.
b) Water or clear
liquids should be given.
c) Instruct the
patient to use a straw to drink liquids.
d) Review the
patient's ability to swallow, and note the extent of facial paralysis.
799.
The nurse is preparing the move an adult who has right sided paralysis from the
bed into a wheel chair. Which statement
best
describe action for the nurse to take?
a) Position the
wheelchair on the left side of the bed.
b) Keep the head of
the bed elevated 10 degrees.
c) Protect the
patients left arm with a sling during transfer.
d) Bend at the waist
while helping the client into a standing position
800.
An adult has experienced a CVA that has resulted in right side weakness. The
nurse is preparing to move the patients
right
side of the bed so that he may then be turned to his left side. The nurse knows
that an important principle when moving
the
patient is?
a) To keep the feet
close together
b) To bend from waist
c) To move body
weight when moving objects
d) A twisting motion will
save steps
More Questions :
- ARAMCO :: CBT QA/QC – Instrumentation Inspector Qualification Guideline
- Saudi Aramco Cbt Exam Questions and Answers
- CBT EXAM E-BOOKS
- QA/QC ELECTRICL Inspector Question & Answer Handbooks
- QA/QC E-books Category
- Free Offline Software Installer Latest version
- Electrical QC Notes of Saudi Aramco Qualification Guideline
- QAQC Questionnaires CONDUIT; CABLE TRAY; ENCLOSURES;
- INSTRUMENTATION QUESTIONAIRE: QAQC CBT ARAMCO
- Saudi Aramco Instrument Questions/Answers
- Top 100 CBT Exam MCQ for NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PART-1
- NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS PART-2
- NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS PART-3
- NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS PART-4
- NMC MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS And ANSWERS PART-5